anyone... s-v.

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anyone... s-v.

by advita » Wed Dec 29, 2010 12:58 am
Anyone who would speak with authority on the poets of the past must have a broad acquaintance with the writers of the classical times.

Anyone who would speak

If one who would speak

He which would speak

Anyone desirous for speaking

Those who have a wish to speak


A/E...pl explain in light of S-V must agree..... thanks.
Source: — Sentence Correction |

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by Geva@EconomistGMAT » Wed Dec 29, 2010 1:35 am
It's a non issue in this question, because of the modal "must", which requires the following verb to be in base form "have" regardless whether the subject is plural or singular.

examples:

He must go
They must go.

Since the verb follows the modal "must", the verb remains the base form "go" regardless of a singular (he) or plural (they) subject. If you remove "must", then the verb changes to agree with the subject

He goes
They go

I believe E is eliminated for stylistic reasons: it is longer and less concise than A ("wish to speak" is longer than "would speak"), and thus presents an unnecessary change from A. It's not that E is wrong, per se: rather, it's that A is better.
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by prachich1987 » Wed Dec 29, 2010 2:55 am
Geva@MasterGMAT wrote:It's a non issue in this question, because of the modal "must", which requires the following verb to be in base form "have" regardless whether the subject is plural or singular.

examples:

He must go
They must go.

Since the verb follows the modal "must", the verb remains the base form "go" regardless of a singular (he) or plural (they) subject. If you remove "must", then the verb changes to agree with the subject

He goes
They go

I believe E is eliminated for stylistic reasons: it is longer and less concise than A ("wish to speak" is longer than "would speak"), and thus presents an unnecessary change from A. It's not that E is wrong, per se: rather, it's that A is better.
Hi Geva
Please read below two sentences

1) He must have the gun.
2) He must has the gun.

Is the first one right & the second one wrong ?

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by Geva@EconomistGMAT » Wed Dec 29, 2010 2:58 am
prachich1987 wrote:
Geva@MasterGMAT wrote:It's a non issue in this question, because of the modal "must", which requires the following verb to be in base form "have" regardless whether the subject is plural or singular.

examples:

He must go
They must go.

Since the verb follows the modal "must", the verb remains the base form "go" regardless of a singular (he) or plural (they) subject. If you remove "must", then the verb changes to agree with the subject

He goes
They go

I believe E is eliminated for stylistic reasons: it is longer and less concise than A ("wish to speak" is longer than "would speak"), and thus presents an unnecessary change from A. It's not that E is wrong, per se: rather, it's that A is better.
Hi Geva
Please read below two sentences

1) He must have the gun.
2) He must has the gun.

Is the first one right & the second one wrong ?
Indeed, for precisely the same reason as above - the modal "must" requires the following verb to be in base form: not has, not will have, not had, but only "have".
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