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standard deviation

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Source: — Problem Solving |
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by raghavsarathy » Wed Jul 22, 2009 10:14 pm
[Edit my post..]

Initially took the % in each range as 10%.. Bad.. Just studied SD concepts again.

Hence changing the %


IMO - 81.8%

Since SD = 110

Mean -SD = 420 .. Between 420 and 530 we have 34.1% of sudents

Similarly between 530 and 750 we have a SD of 220 = 110*2. Hence 34.1 + 13.6 = 47.7 %

Hence 81.8 % of the students score between 420 and 750
Last edited by raghavsarathy on Wed Jul 22, 2009 10:40 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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by bfman » Wed Jul 22, 2009 10:19 pm
Don't we have to know the percentage as it corresponds to the deviation?
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by Spaceman Spiff » Wed Jul 22, 2009 10:31 pm
68.2% of a normally distributed population falls within 1 standard deviation of the mean (34.1% on each side). 95.5% falls within two (additional 13.6% on each side). 2 SD of mean here is:

-2 -1 MEAN +1 +2

310 420 530 640 750

So we have 68.2+ 13.6 = 81.8%
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by uptowngirl92 » Thu Jul 23, 2009 1:26 am
IS this concept tested on the GMAT??34%,14% and 2%?This question is from the new PR 1012 but I havent come across such questions before.Do we need to learn it?
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by tohellandback » Thu Jul 23, 2009 1:34 am
few questions:
1) How can you be sure that the distribution is normal?
because as far as I know the values you are taking are only valid for Normal distribution

2) so do we need to remember values for population distribution.
The powers of two are bloody impolite!!
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by Spaceman Spiff » Thu Jul 23, 2009 1:46 am
The problem wasn't posted completely so I assumed normal distribution since it is a problem solving question, which means we must be able to solve it with the given information and the only way to do that is to assume normal distribution.

I am not sure if you need to know the values but I think (and I may be wrong) that 68% and 95% are "common knowledge". I remember having seen a few problems that required knowledge of the first and 2nd SDs.
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by Ian Stewart » Thu Jul 23, 2009 3:04 am
The question in the original post cannot possibly be answered - we have no idea how our data is distributed.

Incidentally, on the GMAT, no set is ever 'normally distributed' (you don't do stats on infinite sets on the GMAT), so you should never try to use rules you may know about normal distributions on GMAT questions. Any prep company question that relies on these rules is irrelevant to the GMAT. You don't even need to know what the phrase 'normally distributed' means for the test.
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by tohellandback » Thu Jul 23, 2009 3:09 am
Ian Stewart wrote:The question in the original post cannot possibly be answered - we have no idea how our data is distributed.

Incidentally, on the GMAT, no set is ever 'normally distributed' (you don't do stats on infinite sets on the GMAT), so you should never try to use rules you may know about normal distributions on GMAT questions. Any prep company question that relies on these rules is irrelevant to the GMAT. You don't even need to know what the phrase 'normally distributed' means for the test.
Thanks Ian, that's what I thought.
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