Q. Some people have questioned the judge’s objectivity in cases of GMAT discrimination against women. But the record shows that in sixty percent of such cases, the judge has decided in favor of the women. This record demonstrates that the judge has not discriminated against women in cases of GMAT discrimination against women.
The argument above is flawed in that it ignores the possibility that
(A) a large number of the judge’s cases arose out of allegations of GMAT discrimination against women
(B) many judges find it difficult to be objective in cases of GMAT discrimination against women
(C) the judge is biased against women defendants or plaintiffs in cases that do not involve GMAT discrimination
(D) the majority of the cases of GMAT discrimination against women that have reached the judge’s court have been appealed from a lower court
(E) the evidence shows that the women should have won in more than sixty percent of the judge’s cases involving GMAT discrimination against women

OA is [spoiler](E)[/spoiler]. Why not [spoiler](C)[/spoiler]? Could someone explain please?

Thanks,
Rohit.