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rishijhawar
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
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- Joined: Mon Mar 14, 2011 8:24 pm
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My question is related to understand ing the INTENDED MEANING of a sentence. Reason being, keeping aside the numerous grammar rules GMAT test, the correct answer hinges on expressing author's intended meaning, something I find difficult to decipher in certain instances. Below is an example in this context:
#1: The court ruled that the plaintiff MUST pay full damages.
#2: The court ruled that the plaintiff SHOULD pay full damages.
Per MANHATTAN SC Guide (latest edition# pg 15), #2 is wrong because "The word should means "moral obligation''-something that a court cannot impose (I thought a court can certainly impose.....say additional taxes or restricting loud noise/late night parties beyond XX hours etc). On the other hand, the use of must in the first sentence indicates a legally binding obligation imposed upon the plaintiff. Thus, you should go with must, whether the original sentence used must or not."
In the actual test, I would have selected #2 given my understanding that a Court of law can impose something given its status to pass laws etc. I don't rule out #1 completely, but would go for #2.
Can someone please help me here? Appreciate expert advice as well.
BTW, those who haven't seen, find the link which has David's great explanation on INTENDED MEANING https://www.beatthegmat.com/the-truth-ab ... 76648.html
#1: The court ruled that the plaintiff MUST pay full damages.
#2: The court ruled that the plaintiff SHOULD pay full damages.
Per MANHATTAN SC Guide (latest edition# pg 15), #2 is wrong because "The word should means "moral obligation''-something that a court cannot impose (I thought a court can certainly impose.....say additional taxes or restricting loud noise/late night parties beyond XX hours etc). On the other hand, the use of must in the first sentence indicates a legally binding obligation imposed upon the plaintiff. Thus, you should go with must, whether the original sentence used must or not."
In the actual test, I would have selected #2 given my understanding that a Court of law can impose something given its status to pass laws etc. I don't rule out #1 completely, but would go for #2.
Can someone please help me here? Appreciate expert advice as well.
BTW, those who haven't seen, find the link which has David's great explanation on INTENDED MEANING https://www.beatthegmat.com/the-truth-ab ... 76648.html
