SARS question...

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SARS question...

by Ozlemg » Tue Jul 26, 2011 6:01 am
During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about 23,670 doctors who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than it was not to participate in SARS treatment.

Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?

.Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to deaths among doctors who had not participated in SARS treatment
.Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among doctors who had treated SARS sufferers and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total number of deaths
.Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths caused by infect of SARS suffers.
.Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than comparing total numbers of deaths
.Comparing deaths caused by accidents in the United States to deaths caused by infect in treating SARS suffers.


could you elaborate?
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by Frankenstein » Tue Jul 26, 2011 6:09 am
Hi,
Comparisons should always be made between proportions. For example 23,500 doctors must have dead out of 25,000 doctors treated and 23,670 doctors died when in fact 10 billion doctors who had not engaged in treatment. So, comparison should be made between the percentage of people dead. This paraphrase can be clearly seen in D.

Hence, D
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