Question: Q49 V35(690) Vs Q49 V34 (700)

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Question: Q49 V35(690) Vs Q49 V34 (700)

by pparun » Mon Nov 23, 2009 12:11 pm
Hi all,

I have heard some people's GMAT scores and in some cases, a Q49 V35 results in 690 but a Q49 V34 results in a 700. How is this possible? What is the trick here? Any ideas and replies will be greatly appreciated.
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by pparun » Tue Nov 24, 2009 6:34 am
Hi guys,

Can somebody solve this discrepancy? This is really strange and weird.

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by mygmat.2009 » Tue Nov 24, 2009 1:02 pm
I guess it all depends on the difficulty level of the questions answered correctly.

e.g. V35 might reflect 30 correct questions out of the 41. Of those 30 correct, maybe only 15 are considered of 700-800 difficuly. On the other hand, V34 might reflect 29 correct questions with around 17 or 18 of those ranked with 700-800 difficulty thus leading to a higher score.

That's only my guess. Perhaps someone with better understanding of the true algorithm could have a more accurate explanation.

Hope this helps.


Sam

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by pparun » Wed Nov 25, 2009 9:58 am
Hi mygmat.2009,

It sounds good. But in that case, you mean the V35 indicates the mark based on the number of questions correctly right? So, should it not have a direct correlation with the 800 marks of GMAT? Else, for example, if I get 1 wrong out of every 5 questions in Verbal consistently, thus not going to the 700-800 level of questions, my total correct answers at the end will be 33/41, but none of them in the above 700 level of difficulty. So, as per you, my Verbal marks will be around 35-37, but still my overall marks will be around 660 (assuming same 49 in quants). Now, this is contradictory right?

Hope I was clear in my doubt. Anybody, pls answer this, as it is very important to know the scoring algorithm as such.

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by cbenk121 » Wed Nov 25, 2009 2:25 pm
pparun wrote:Hi mygmat.2009,

It sounds good. But in that case, you mean the V35 indicates the mark based on the number of questions correctly right? So, should it not have a direct correlation with the 800 marks of GMAT? Else, for example, if I get 1 wrong out of every 5 questions in Verbal consistently, thus not going to the 700-800 level of questions, my total correct answers at the end will be 33/41, but none of them in the above 700 level of difficulty. So, as per you, my Verbal marks will be around 35-37, but still my overall marks will be around 660 (assuming same 49 in quants). Now, this is contradictory right?

Hope I was clear in my doubt. Anybody, pls answer this, as it is very important to know the scoring algorithm as such.
Meh. At the end of the day, you won't figure out the algorithm used. There are several test prep companies that are much farther along than you in "reverse-engineering" the algorithm, and yet they have not perfectly figured out how it works.

I would focus instead on how you can IMPROVE both your math and verbal. I'm assuming these hypothetical scores are yours (or close to yours). If you can improve your verbal to 44, then you'll get a 760 and you won't have to worry about it :P.

For the record, on my last practice test I got 12 math questions incorrect, and 4 verbal questions incorrect. I got a Q47 and V44...so yea, number of questions incorrect or correct doesn't seem to matter. It's more about, I think, the difficulty of questions you attract, determined through the unique properties of each question you get wrong or right.

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by mygmat.2009 » Fri Nov 27, 2009 8:08 am
Pparun,

I agree with cbenk121, there is no use of worrying too much about the algorithm. There is noway of having an accurate translation of number of correct + diffculty to the scaled score without being off by 10-20 points. That said, if these were your practice scores and you want to ensure crossing the 700 mark, you should aim for a 37-38 on the verbal.

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by dla5h expert » Mon Dec 21, 2009 1:40 am
i think its impossible that both tests are real tests and in the same year !!

if you are sure that both test are real GMAC test and not practice tests ,, then I am sure they were taken in different years !!