Live GMAT classes with Target Test Prep start Nov 21 and Nov 22. First class free.

See classes
Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

Newsweek Readers’ Choice Awards 2026 winner: Target Test Prep, #1 Test Prep

Target Test Prep was voted #1 Best Test Prep in the 2026 Newsweek Readers’ Choice™ Awards.

★★★★★5.0563 reviews
GMATLiveTeachStarts Nov 22
Josh Braslow, Target Test Prep GMAT expert
LIVE ONLINE CLASSES

Get Ready for GMAT Test Day Faster with Live Online Classes

with Josh Braslow, 20+ years in test prep

Nov 22 · Josh Braslow
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes + 6 months of TTP OnDemand
  • Attend the first class for free
  • Every class is recorded, so you never fall behind
View classes & enroll
Limited seats availableTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeachOnDemandStart anytime
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Target Test Prep EA OnDemand

Self-paced EA prep. Study on your schedule.

EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

with

165+ EA score guarantee
$05-day trial no automatic billing
Schedule
Included
40 hours of live online classes plus six months of access to the complete TTP EA OnDemand course.
  • 165+ EA Score Guarantee
  • 4,100+ Quant, Verbal, and Integrated Reasoning practice questions
  • 400+ hours of in-depth video lessons
  • 3,000+ step-by-step video solutions
View EA class & enroll Start free 5-day trial
Limited cohort · enrollment openTrial includes full course accessTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemandStart anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

715+ score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

ps5

Expert replies
by ket_gmat » Sat Sep 20, 2008 3:44 am
hi plz solve this and try to give detail explanation.

Please suggest me some material that will improve my PS skills in probability and standard deviation problems.
Best regards,
You do not have the required permissions to view the files attached to this post.
Join the discussion
Source: — Problem Solving |

by Ian Stewart » Sat Sep 20, 2008 6:50 am
This is a very poorly designed question, for many reasons. Where is it from?

First, you need to know properties of normal distributions to answer the question. I have never seen a real GMAT question that requires you to know anything about normal distributions, though I have been seeing a lot of test prep company questions about normal distributions, which I think is misleading for test takers. The sets here are also presumably finite, so they can only have an approximately normal distribution; the normal distribution is a continuous (infinite) distribution;

Second, the correct answer to this question is not in the list; the correct answer here will not be a simple fraction; it will be a long decimal, and to answer this question precisely, you would need to consult a statistics table;

Third, they have the wrong answer, probably because the question designer has misunderstood that the 68-95-99.7 rule of normal distributions only gives approximations, not exact values (and they seem to have used 96, not 95, to come up with their answer). If you use exact values here, the answer is very close (correct to three decimal places) to 1/8, not 1/9.

Now that I'm done complaining about the quality of the question, here's how to solve it. I'd note, however, that you won't need to know any of this for the GMAT:

-when data is normally distributed, approximately 68% of values are within one standard deviation of the mean, and approximately 95% of values are within two standard deviations of the mean. These are approximations, rounded to the nearest integer. Note that this is only true if you know that your data is normally distributed; it is not true for an arbitrary set of data;

-One set has a mean of 460 and a standard deviation of 20. Thus approximately 68% of values will be between 440 and 480, and roughly 32% will be outside this range. Normal distributions are symmetric, so roughly 16% of values are below 440. That 16% is only an approximation, however; to three decimal places the percentage is 15.865%, something impossible to work out quickly without consulting a stats table;

-The other set has a mean of 520 and a standard deviation of 40. Thus approximately 95% of values will be between 440 and 600 (within two standard deviations). So approximately 5% of values are outside of this range, and approximately 2.5% are below 440. This is only approximate; again, to three decimal places the percentage is 2.275%.

The sets are of equal size, so to determine the proportion of test takers with scores below 440 who belong to the second set, we simply need to find:

2.275/(2.275 + 15.865) = 2.275/18.14 = 0.1254....

or almost exactly 1/8. So the answer choice which is closest to being correct is 1/8, but that's still just an approximation.

Curious to know where the question is from, but it's not one you should bother with for your prep.
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

ianstewartgmat.com
Join the discussion

by ket_gmat » Sat Sep 20, 2008 7:54 am
Ian Stewart wrote:This is a very poorly designed question, for many reasons. Where is it from?

First, you need to know properties of normal distributions to answer the question. I have never seen a real GMAT question that requires you to know anything about normal distributions, though I have been seeing a lot of test prep company questions about normal distributions, which I think is misleading for test takers. The sets here are also presumably finite, so they can only have an approximately normal distribution; the normal distribution is a continuous (infinite) distribution;

Second, the correct answer to this question is not in the list; the correct answer here will not be a simple fraction; it will be a long decimal, and to answer this question precisely, you would need to consult a statistics table;

Third, they have the wrong answer, probably because the question designer has misunderstood that the 68-95-99.7 rule of normal distributions only gives approximations, not exact values (and they seem to have used 96, not 95, to come up with their answer). If you use exact values here, the answer is very close (correct to three decimal places) to 1/8, not 1/9.

Now that I'm done complaining about the quality of the question, here's how to solve it. I'd note, however, that you won't need to know any of this for the GMAT:

-when data is normally distributed, approximately 68% of values are within one standard deviation of the mean, and approximately 95% of values are within two standard deviations of the mean. These are approximations, rounded to the nearest integer. Note that this is only true if you know that your data is normally distributed; it is not true for an arbitrary set of data;

-One set has a mean of 460 and a standard deviation of 20. Thus approximately 68% of values will be between 440 and 480, and roughly 32% will be outside this range. Normal distributions are symmetric, so roughly 16% of values are below 440. That 16% is only an approximation, however; to three decimal places the percentage is 15.865%, something impossible to work out quickly without consulting a stats table;

-The other set has a mean of 520 and a standard deviation of 40. Thus approximately 95% of values will be between 440 and 600 (within two standard deviations). So approximately 5% of values are outside of this range, and approximately 2.5% are below 440. This is only approximate; again, to three decimal places the percentage is 2.275%.

The sets are of equal size, so to determine the proportion of test takers with scores below 440 who belong to the second set, we simply need to find:

2.275/(2.275 + 15.865) = 2.275/18.14 = 0.1254....

or almost exactly 1/8. So the answer choice which is closest to being correct is 1/8, but that's still just an approximation.

Curious to know where the question is from, but it's not one you should bother with for your prep.
Hi Stewart,
First of all thanks for your prompt reply.I will definitely follow your suggestion.
I am naive in GMAT study and its preparation scope.
Well, for me this question was really tough, and since its from one of standard preparation material I could not look over on its solution.
They have provided solution for the same problem. (plz find it's attached)
Can you please explain me, why they have used ratio 34:14:2.
From your last explanation I got vague idea about normal distribution(Need to read it 1s again :shock: ).Please help me.

Thanks and Regards,
You do not have the required permissions to view the files attached to this post.
Join the discussion

by stop@800 » Sat Sep 20, 2008 9:14 am
Thanks a lot Ian for the great explanation.

Even I was not aware of 68-95-99.7 rule, I always used 68:96: xx (~100) rule.

Ket_gmat:
The 34:14:2 rule is same as what Ian described.

Actually 34% lies with in one +ve deviation and 34% within 1 -ve deviation. [total 68% with single deviation to mean]

14% lies between mean-sigma to mean-2*sigma
so including both sides it becomes 28 %

Total becomes 34*2 + 14*2 = 96%
this 96% actually is 95% as described by Ian.

Hope this clarifies.

Once again, Thank you very Ian.
Join the discussion