Princeton Review Math Bin 4 problem

This topic has expert replies
User avatar
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 5
Joined: Mon Mar 14, 2011 5:37 pm

Princeton Review Math Bin 4 problem

by ysfpsu » Fri Mar 18, 2011 7:21 am
The explanation for this problem in Princeton Review is a little unclear for me so if anyone can help me out, it would be greatly appreciated. The problem is:

A fair 2 sided coin is flipped 6 times. What is the probability that tails will be the result at least twice but more than 5 times?
Source: — Problem Solving |

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Fri Mar 18, 2011 7:41 am
ysfpsu wrote:The explanation for this problem in Princeton Review is a little unclear for me so if anyone can help me out, it would be greatly appreciated. The problem is:

A fair 2 sided coin is flipped 6 times. What is the probability that tails will be the result at least twice but more than 5 times?
Here's the correct question:

What is the probability that tails will be the result at least twice but not more than 5 times?

Good outcomes: 2 tails, 3 tails, 4 tails, or 5 tails.
Bad outcomes: 0 tails, 1 tails, or 6 tails.

P(good outcome) = 1 - P(bad outcome)

Bad outcomes:

P(0 tails):
P(HHHHHH) = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/64.

P(1 tails):
P(THHHHH) = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/64.
Since T could occur on any of the 6 flips, we multiply by 6: 6 * 1/64 = 6/64.

P(6 tails):
P(TTTTTT) = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/64.

Since any of the above would be a bad outcome, we add the fractions:

P(bad outcome) = 1/64 + 6/64 + 1/64 = 8/64 = 1/8.

Thus, P(good outcome) = 1 - 1/8 = 7/8.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

User avatar
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 5
Joined: Mon Mar 14, 2011 5:37 pm

by ysfpsu » Fri Mar 18, 2011 7:46 am
wow, that efficient breakdown made me very scared for my performance on the GMATs haha.

Could you explain to me why you multiplied by 6 again?

Thanks for the quick response.

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Fri Mar 18, 2011 7:51 am
ysfpsu wrote:wow, that efficient breakdown made me very scared for my performance on the GMATs haha.

Could you explain to me why you multiplied by 6 again?

Thanks for the quick response.
P(THHHHH) = 1/64.

But THHHHH -- tails on the first flip and heads on all the others -- is only one way to get exactly 1 tails. We need to account for all the different ways to get exactly 1 tails:
THHHHH
HTHHHH
HHTHHH
HHHTHH
HHHHTH
HHHHHT

Since there are 6 ways to get exactly 1 tails, the result above must be multiplied by 6:

P(exactly 1 tails) = 6 * 1/64 = 6/64.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3