bbaah wrote:
Rewrite the stem: is 1/p > r/(r^2+2) becomes,
is p<(r^2+2)/r (in general 1/a>1/b can be rewritten as a<b)
The answer is indeed C, but the logic above is not quite right. It is not universally true that 1/a > 1/b can be rewritten as a < b. You can only do this if a and b have the same sign (both positive or both negative). This is easy to see with an example: take a = 2, and b = -2. Then clearly 1/a > 1/b, but a is also greater than b.
When you have an inequality like:
1/a > 1/b
and you want an inequality comparing a and b, really what you're doing is multiplying by ab on both sides. If ab > 0 (that is, if a and b have the same sign), we do not need to reverse the inequality, and we get:
b > a
If, on the other hand, ab < 0 (i.e. if a and b have opposite signs), we do need to reverse the inequality; we get:
b < a
Jackcrystal, perhaps you could explain what you think is wrong about the explanation in the OG? The answer should indeed be C.