is 1/p > r /(r^2 + 2)
1. p = r
2. r > 0
you can see the solution on page # 336. But, I think they are wrong.
1. p = r
2. r > 0
you can see the solution on page # 336. But, I think they are wrong.
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The answer is indeed C, but the logic above is not quite right. It is not universally true that 1/a > 1/b can be rewritten as a < b. You can only do this if a and b have the same sign (both positive or both negative). This is easy to see with an example: take a = 2, and b = -2. Then clearly 1/a > 1/b, but a is also greater than b.bbaah wrote:
Rewrite the stem: is 1/p > r/(r^2+2) becomes,
is p<(r^2+2)/r (in general 1/a>1/b can be rewritten as a<b)
You've multiplied both sides of the inequality by r^2 + 2, which is certain to be positive, and also by p. You don't know if p is positive or negative. If p is negative you would need to reverse the inequality after you multiply both sides by p. So you can't 'simplify' as you've done above, at least not without knowing whether p is positive or negative.jackcrystal wrote:lets simplify it
r^2 + 2 > pr
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