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gmat740 wrote:Hi,
Sorry for opening this thread again. Can anybody provide me another method rather than plugging values.
Thanks
duongthang wrote:Leo can buy a certain computer for p1 dollars in State A, where the sales tax is t1 percent, or he can buy the same computer for p2 in State B, where the sales tax is t2 percent. Is the total cost of the computer greater in State A than in in State B
1, t1>t2
2, p1t1>p2t2
I don't much like the wording of this question (though it is an official question), because it isn't quite clear whether the prices p_1 and p_2 include the sales tax or not. Going by the wording of the question, it appears that the prices include tax, but judging by the solution in the OG (which is a mess in my edition - full of typos), the prices do not include the tax. It doesn't matter, however; the answer is E either way.sanjib wrote:how u know that the Price of Computer in either cities is not inclusive of Sales tax.SO if instead of t1>t2 the statement is p1>p2 the ans will be A or C.
I've highlighted your mistake; you can't divide one inequality by another. For example, the following inequalities are both true:All4GMAT wrote:I have a solution which differs from the Official Guide answer - E. I think the question's answer is C, i.e. both statements together are sufficient to answer the question.
Question is if P1 + T1/100 (P1) > P2 + T2/100 (P2) ??
Solution:
From Statement 1 : T1 > T2
So, T1/100 > T2/100
So, 1 + T1/100 > 1 + T2/100
So, P1 (1 + T1/100) > P1 (1 + T2/100) -------------- I
From Statement 2 : P1T1 > P2T2
Dividing Statement 2 by Statement 1, we have
P1T1/T1 > P2T2/T2
So, P1 > P2 ------------------------------------------------ II
From Statement I and II,
P1 (1 + T1/100) > P2 (1 + T2/100)
Thus, P1 + T1/100 (P1) > P2 + T2/100 (P2)
Shouldn't the answer be C?
Please correct me if I am wrong guys??
Hi, All4GMAT... were you not satisfied by my answer to your very same question posted (before) here:All4GMAT wrote:Please correct me if I am wrong guys??
Hi emilianoIT!emilianoIT wrote:p1*(t1/t2) > p2
Since t1/t2 > 1 --> then p1 > p2.
Am I wrong?
Hi emilianoIT!emilianoIT wrote:Hi Fabio!
I only have another question:
Do you mean that we cannot state that p1*(t1/t2)>p2 because we don't know the values of p1, p2, t1 and t2?
From a mathematical perspective, if we know that a*b>c*d, if we divide each side of the inequality by the same value d, then the result of the equation must be still true.
Examples:
4*3 > 5*2 --> (4*3)/2 > 5 --> 6 > 5 TRUE
5*4 > 4*4 --> (5*4)/4 > 4 --> 5 > 4 TRUE
2*3 > 2*2 --> (2*3)/2 > 2 --> 3 > 2 TRUE
Thus in our case, if we divide both the left side (p1*t1) and the right side (p2*t2) of the inequality by the same value (t2), the result must be still true.
No, that´s not the reason. Please note that you did NOT divide both sides by the same (t1/t2) amount to come to your conclusion... you would like to divide just the left-hand side, and I´ve shown to you that the implication:Do you mean that we cannot state that p1*(t1/t2)>p2 because we don't know the values of p1, p2, t1 and t2?
If we divide each side of the inequality by the same POSITIVE value d, then the INEQUALITY must be still true.a*b>c*d, if we divide each side of the inequality by the same value d, then the result of the equation must be still true.
To come to my conclusion i did divide both side by the same amount t2, not by t1/t2...Please note that you did NOT divide both sides by the same (t1/t2) amount to come to your conclusion...
In our situation we are dividing by t2 that is a sales tax vale, and it must be a positive value since it is a sales tax. How can a sales tax be negative?If we divide each side of the inequality by the same POSITIVE value d, then the INEQUALITY must be still true.
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