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by bblast » Mon Aug 15, 2011 7:52 am
The villagers' sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are

D

[spoiler]Small Question : If I modify C to read :
(C) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

what "technical" difference would be between C and D.[/spoiler]
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by aspirant2011 » Mon Aug 15, 2011 9:56 am
bblast wrote:The villagers' sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are

D

[spoiler]Small Question : If I modify C to read :
(C) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

what "technical" difference would be between C and D.[/spoiler]
Good question because it tests the meaning preservation and singular/plural concept.........

When I first read the sentence I eliminated option A & D because I thought that sighting ghosts changes the intended meaning :-(.........I am myself confused on seeing the OA :-(
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by bblast » Mon Aug 15, 2011 10:18 am
Hi Aspirant,

The question just tests that gerunds("sighting" in this case) are always singular subjects.

(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been ->have been is plural
(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been->have been is plural
(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been->sightings is plural which does not match with has been
(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been -correct
(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are ->are is plural while sighting is singular



The issue is "sighting of ghosts" is a noun. So will options C be correct if it is changed to -> "sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been"

I removed the "s" from sightings to make it singular.
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by aspirant2011 » Mon Aug 15, 2011 10:33 am
bblast wrote:Hi Aspirant,

The question just tests that gerunds("sighting" in this case) are always singular subjects.

(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been ->have been is plural
(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been->have been is plural
(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been->sightings is plural which does not match with has been
(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been -correct
(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are ->are is plural while sighting is singular



The issue is "sighting of ghosts" is a noun. So will options C be correct if it is changed to -> "sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been"

I removed the "s" from sightings to make it singular.
Hi bblast,

That I agree sighting is singular, my doubt is this that according to me sighting of ghosts should be the right usage not sighting ghosts........what is ur take on that?????
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by crick » Mon Aug 15, 2011 6:57 pm
villagers' sighting of ghosts and demons... looks correct to me.

Crick
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by mundasingh123 » Wed Aug 17, 2011 12:15 am
aspirant2011 wrote:
bblast wrote:Hi Aspirant,

The question just tests that gerunds("sighting" in this case) are always singular subjects.

(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been ->have been is plural
(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been->have been is plural
(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been->sightings is plural which does not match with has been
(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been -correct
(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are ->are is plural while sighting is singular



The issue is "sighting of ghosts" is a noun. So will options C be correct if it is changed to -> "sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been"

I removed the "s" from sightings to make it singular.
Hi bblast,

That I agree sighting is singular, my doubt is this that according to me sighting of ghosts should be the right usage not sighting ghosts........what is ur take on that?????
sight is a verb according to Merriam Webster Dictionary
Sighting ghosts is a simple gerund .
Even otherwise you can eliminate the other options on the basis of Subject - verb Agreement . I think you know this already
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by bblast » Wed Aug 17, 2011 1:26 am
Hi Guys, the main clarification m looking for is whats the difference between :
1>sighting ghosts; and
2>sighting of ghosts

I think 1 is a gerund and 2 is a noun phrase. I also think that both of these would be correct in any answer choices. Also both are always singular subjects.
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by mundasingh123 » Wed Aug 17, 2011 1:29 am
bblast wrote:Hi Guys, the main clarification m looking for is whats the difference between :
1>sighting ghosts; and
2>sighting of ghosts

I think 1 is a gerund and 2 is a noun phrase. I also think that both of these would be correct in any answer choices. Also both are always singular subjects.
sigting ghost is simple gerund
sighting of ghost can be a noun phrase when sighting is considered a noun
sighting of ghost can be a gerund when sight is considered a verb
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by GMATGuruNY » Wed Aug 17, 2011 3:03 am
bblast wrote:The villagers' sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are

D

[spoiler]Small Question : If I modify C to read :
(C) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

what "technical" difference would be between C and D.[/spoiler]
Every answer choice but D has a subject-verb agreement error.

In A and B: sighting (singular subject) does not agree with have been (plural).

In C: sightings (plural subject) does not agree with has been (singular).

In E: sighting (singular subject) does not agree with are (plural).

The correct answer is D.

If C were to say the SIGHTING of ghosts and demons, the meaning would become muddled: THE SIGHTING could imply that, on ONE occasion, all of the villagers saw ghosts and demons. In D, the villagers' sighting ghosts and demons conveys the intended meaning: that the villagers were CONTINUALLY seeing ghosts and demons.

Please note that I find the structure in the OA awkward. The GMAT tends not to like a possessive + gerund + direct object construction such as the villagers' sighting ghosts and demons.
Last edited by GMATGuruNY on Wed Aug 17, 2011 7:48 am, edited 1 time in total.
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by bblast » Wed Aug 17, 2011 6:21 am
thanks Mitch, its much more clear now.
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by czarczar » Wed Aug 17, 2011 9:44 pm
Could someone explain me this:

villagers' have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.

or the sighting have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.

I thought that the former is correct and choose A.

The villagers' ((modifier)sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 }have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


Please clearify.
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by garima99 » Wed Aug 17, 2011 10:10 pm
The villagers' sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


(A) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(B) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 have been

(C) sightings of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(D) sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 has been

(E) sighting of ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 are
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by bblast » Wed Aug 17, 2011 11:51 pm
czarczar wrote:Could someone explain me this:

villagers' have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.

or the sighting have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.

I thought that the former is correct and choose A.

The villagers' ((modifier)sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 }have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


Please clearify.
Hi,

I think u made a small error in interpreting villagers'. This word is used here in the possessive form and hence cannot have a main verb. Thats the reason why have been in A cannot refer to villagers.
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by czarczar » Thu Aug 18, 2011 12:43 am
bblast wrote:
czarczar wrote:Could someone explain me this:

villagers' have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.

or the sighting have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.

I thought that the former is correct and choose A.

The villagers' ((modifier)sighting ghosts and demons during the Salem witch trials of 1692 }have been attributed by many present psychologists and physicians to mass hysteria and psychosomatic disorders.


Please clearify.
Hi,

I think u made a small error in interpreting villagers'. This word is used here in the possessive form and hence cannot have a main verb. Thats the reason why have been in A cannot refer to villagers.
So you mean to say that possesive words can not act as subjects alone?
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by bblast » Thu Aug 18, 2011 1:35 am
You got that, Possessive's are always used to associate something to a noun. That something will be the main subject and not the possessive.

Crar's tie is torn. {here "tie" is the sub}

Czar's beliefs are saint. {here "beliefs" is the sub}
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