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LCM

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by mals24 » Sat Nov 15, 2008 4:04 am
I have a general question. Is zero a multiple of all numbers?

I think it is a multiple. Even according to the following website it is https://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/60913.html.

However, if 0 is a multiple of all numbers why don't we consider it while calculating LCMs. Shouldn't 0 be the LCM of every number?

Thanks for your help :)
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Source: — Data Sufficiency |
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by cramya » Sat Nov 15, 2008 11:23 am
I think it has to do with the definition of LCM i.e. the norm is to take a non zero positive number.Just like when we say squrae root of a real number we consider the prinicipal square root (non negative root) of that number

Like u say if this was not the case then 0 wouldbe the LCM for any 2 numbers, I am sure the experts here can provide more info but I will also see if I can find anything on this.
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