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by jaymw » Thu Jun 09, 2011 5:51 am
edvhou812 wrote:
factor26 wrote:Hi

Can anyone explain the sentence "the gender distrinution for finance majors and non finance majors is the same."

The same as what? ... I actually just reread this again, gender distribution is referring to male and female (naturally) and
Each class of student finance or not. It just seems a little tricky here can someone better explain this?
The ratio between males and females among the majors is the same. For example: If there are 100 non-finance majors, 50 would be male and 50 would be female.
No. If it were like this, i.e. if in every major there were 50% females and 50% males, then that would go counter the statement that in total there are only 40% females.
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by cans » Thu Jun 09, 2011 5:59 am
In a given finance lecture, 30% of the students are finance majors, and 40% of the students are female. The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same. If one student is called on at random, what is the probability that the student is neither female nor a finance major?
let total=100
Finance=30
non finance=70
F=40
M=60
let gender ratio for finance and non finance be x female:1 male
thus female = x*30/(x+1) + x*70(x+1) = 40
x/(x+1)=2/5
x=2/3
thus 2female:3 male
thus 3 male per total 5 persons
out of 70 non finance, male = (3/5)*70 = 42
IMO D
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by Vish_ » Thu Jun 09, 2011 6:52 am
IMO D
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by gmatcruncher » Fri Aug 19, 2011 8:05 am
I go for option D.

I basically did simple maths and used approximation.

Knowing that 70% are non finance majors and the distribution of 60-40 for male-female:

50% (as an approximation of 60% requested) of 70% (non finance majors) = 35.

It has to be a little bit more than that and looking at the questions, 42% (option D) is the closest to that figure.

I prefer to use simple maths and use the answers rather that go into maths and potentially make a mistake.
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by saurabh2525_gupta » Sun Aug 21, 2011 7:18 am
jaymw wrote:
edvhou812 wrote:
factor26 wrote:Hi

Can anyone explain the sentence "the gender distrinution for finance majors and non finance majors is the same."

The same as what? ... I actually just reread this again, gender distribution is referring to male and female (naturally) and
Each class of student finance or not. It just seems a little tricky here can someone better explain this?
The ratio between males and females among the majors is the same. For example: If there are 100 non-finance majors, 50 would be male and 50 would be female.
No. If it were like this, i.e. if in every major there were 50% females and 50% males, then that would go counter the statement that in total there are only 40% females.
The statement means that the females are evenly distributed between finance majors and non-finance majors. Implies that females/males(in finance majors) = females/males(in non-finance majors).

40% of 70%(Non finance major total students) = 40/100 * 70% = 28%
40% of 30%(Finance major total students) = 40/100 * 30% = 12%

If we add the two figures 28% + 12% = 40%. This can be done to cross check the answer.

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JOHN
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by immaculatesahai » Thu Dec 15, 2011 12:14 am
The key to the problem was realizing that the ratio of male to female is constant in finance and non finance majors.

Just draw a table:

SO, ans is 42%
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by amanpreet » Tue Feb 21, 2012 3:23 pm
60% (male) of 70 ( non Finance)= 42.
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by ronnie1985 » Fri Mar 30, 2012 10:07 am
Using Venn diagram
(D) 42% is the ans
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by joshhowatt » Mon Apr 30, 2012 9:21 am
shovan85 wrote:
DanaJ wrote:Source: Veritas Prep

In a given finance lecture, 30% of the students are finance majors, and 40% of the students are female. The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same. If one student is called on at random, what is the probability that the student is neither female nor a finance major?

A) 70%
B) 60%
C) 58%
D) 42%
E) 30%

Experts: only Veritas Prep experts, please!
IMO D

Draw a box diagram as shown below. The 4 parameters here are Female, Male, Finance major, Non Finance major.

As it is in percentage take the total as 100. (Shown in Yellow)

30% of the students are finance majors (shown in Yellow) and 40% of the students are female (shown in Yellow)

Thus, remaining total Non finance students 70%(shown in Orange) and 60% of the students are male (shown in Orange).

Say female non finance be x then female finance will be 40-x
Say male non finance be y then female finance will be 60-y

Now question says The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same.

Thus x/(40-x) = y/(60-y) ...(1)

and we know x+y = 70 then x = 70-y.

Put 70-y at the place of x in eqn(1) thus solving we get y = 42 (shown red)

Now see what is y? It is the student neither female nor a finance major.

Thus 42/100 = 42%
I don't know what in the world I'm doing wrong (I'm certain a total brain fart), but when I plug 70-y back into equation (1), I'm getting -30y=4200. Where am I going wrong. I see the logic. I just for the life of me cannot figure out where I'm going wrong.
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by surmilsehgal » Tue Aug 14, 2012 11:11 am
Answer is D
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by ritzzzr » Fri Feb 15, 2013 2:26 am
Ans is 42 %
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by rajeshsinghgmat » Tue Feb 19, 2013 9:33 am
D, 0.42
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by Java_85 » Fri Sep 13, 2013 8:57 am
1-p(finance or female)=1-(.4+.3-.12)=42% --> D
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by Mathsbuddy » Fri Dec 20, 2013 6:13 am
No diagrams required:
A = P(not female and not finance) = 0.6 * 0.7 = 0.42
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by nikhilgmat31 » Mon Jul 06, 2015 12:56 am
This is a little difficult statement to understand, otherwise question is good & easy.

The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same.


42% is the answer.
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