insurance

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insurance

by j_shreyans » Thu Aug 21, 2014 3:21 am
Guys ,

A family pays $800 per year for an insurance plan that pays 80 percent of the first$1,000 in expenses and 100 percent of all medical expenses thereafter. In any given
year, the total amount paid by the family will equal the amount paid by the plan
when the family's medical expenses total.

A. $1,000 B.$1,200
C. $1,400 D.$1,800
E. $2,200 OAB Thanks , Shreyans MBA Admissions Consultant Posts: 2278 Joined: 11 Nov 2011 Location: New York Thanked: 660 times Followed by:266 members GMAT Score:770 by [email protected] » Thu Aug 21, 2014 5:08 am You can break this up into pieces. The first$1,000 in medical expenses:

Family total = $800 (initial premium) +$200 (20% of expenses) = $1000 Insurance total =$800 (80% of total)

After this the insurance company pays all the expenses and is $200 behind the family total, so an additional$200 must me spent to make the totals equal.

$1,000 +$200 = $1,200 B GMAT Answers provides a world class adaptive learning platform. -- Push button course navigation to simplify planning -- Daily assignments to fit your exam timeline -- Organized review that is tailored based on your abiility -- 1,000s of unique GMAT questions -- 100s of handwritten 'digital flip books' for OG questions -- 100% Free Trial and less than$20 per month after.
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by GMATGuruNY » Thu Aug 21, 2014 6:08 am
j_shreyans wrote:Guys ,

A family pays $800 per year for an insurance plan that pays 80 percent of the first$1,000 in expenses and 100 percent of all medical expenses thereafter. In any given year, the total amount paid by the family will equal the amount paid by the plan when the family's medical expenses total

A. $1,000 B.$1,200

C. $1,400 D.$1,800

E. $2,200 Since the plan pays 80 percent of the first$1,000 in expenses, the family pays 20% of the first $1000 in expenses. Thus: The total amount paid by the family = premium + 20% of the first$1000 in expenses = 800 + 200 = 1000.

We can PLUG IN THE ANSWERS, which represent the total amount of medical expenses.
When the correct answer choice is plugged in, the plan will pay the same amount as the family's total ($1000). D: 1800 Since the plan pays 80% of the first$1000 and 100% of the remainder, the amount paid by the plan = 80% of 1000 + 100% of 800 = 800+800 = 1600.
Too much.
Since the correct answer choice must be SMALLER, eliminate D and E.

B: 1200
Since the plan pays 80% of the first $1000 and 100% of the remainder, the amount paid by the plan = 80% of 1000 + 100% of 200 = 800+200 = 1000. Success! The correct answer is B. Mitch Hunt Private Tutor for the GMAT and GRE [email protected] If you find one of my posts helpful, please take a moment to click on the "UPVOTE" icon. Available for tutoring in NYC and long-distance. For more information, please email me at [email protected]. Student Review #1 Student Review #2 Student Review #3 GMAT/MBA Expert GMAT Instructor Posts: 15947 Joined: 08 Dec 2008 Location: Vancouver, BC Thanked: 5254 times Followed by:1267 members GMAT Score:770 by [email protected] » Thu Aug 21, 2014 6:52 am j_shreyans wrote:Guys , A family pays$800 per year for an insurance plan that pays 80 percent of the first
$1,000 in expenses and 100 percent of all medical expenses thereafter. In any given year, the total amount paid by the family will equal the amount paid by the plan when the family's medical expenses total. A.$1,000
B. $1,200 C.$1,400
D. $1,800 E.$2,200

Amount paid by family = Amount paid by plan
$800 premium + 20% of first$1000 + 0% of anything over $1000 = 80% of first$1000 + 100% of anything over $1000 Simplify:$800 + $200 +$0 = $800 + 100% of anything over$1000

Now, let T = total of family's medical expenses
We get: $800 +$200 + $0 =$800 + 100% of (T - $1000) Simplify:$1000 = $800 + 1.0(T -$1000)
Simplify: $1000 =$800 + T - $1000 Simplify:$1000 = T - $200 Solve: T = [spoiler]$1200[/spoiler]

Cheers,
Brent

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by [email protected] » Fri Dec 22, 2017 9:54 am

A family pays $800 per year for an insurance plan that pays 80 percent of the first$1,000 in expenses and 100 percent of all medical expenses thereafter. In any given
year, the total amount paid by the family will equal the amount paid by the plan
when the family's medical expenses total.

A. $1,000 B.$1,200
C. $1,400 D.$1,800
E. $2,200 If we let m = total medical expenses incurred by the family and p = total amount paid by family, then p = 800 + 0.2m if m â‰¤ 1000, or p = 800 + 0.2(1000) = 1000 if m > 1000. If we let n = total amount paid by the insurance plan, then n = 0.8m if m â‰¤ 1000, or n = 0.8(1000) + m - 1000 = m - 200 if m > 1000. We need to determine when n = p. We have two cases: 1) if m â‰¤ 1000; 2) if m > 1000. 1) If m â‰¤ 1000, we have: n = p 0.8m = 800 + 0.2m 0.6m = 800 m = 800/0.6 = 8000/6 We see that m > 1000, which is contradictory to our assumption that m â‰¤ 1000. So, let's analyze case 2. 2) if m > 1000, we have: n = p m - 200 = 1000 m = 1200 We see that m = 1200 is within our assumption that m > 1000. So, if the family's total medical expenses are$1,200, then the family and the insurance company will have paid equal amounts.

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by Evgeny » Wed Nov 13, 2019 10:39 pm
Why in ever answer we are assuming that insurance is paying the the family back on the same money?

Family spends 800 > gets nothing back (family money -800)
Family spends 1000 > gets 800 back (family money -1000) - why everyone is saying at this point that insurance will pay 800 again??? They already paid it back....?
Family spends 200 > gets back 200 (family money -1000)

Again even if we say insurance counts 800 as money spend by family:
F spends 800 > nothing back (-800)
F spends 200 > (totals 1000) gets 800 back (f money is -200)
F spends 200 (total jumps to -400) > gets back 200 (-200)

How come insurance is returning money back from the past? Oh you spend 1 dollar today, here is $1000 back based on your total spent? Like family got 80% discount and paid 200 not 1k, and after that they get$800 for just spening that 200?

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