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by umaa » Sun Jul 26, 2009 8:34 pm
If m and n are negative, is m/n less than 1 ?
(1) mn < 1
(2) m - n > n

My answer is B. What is your answer and explanation? Will post the OA later
Last edited by umaa on Mon Jul 27, 2009 2:33 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Source: — Data Sufficiency |
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by nitya34 » Mon Jul 27, 2009 7:54 am
whats the Q?
If m and n are negative, is mn less than 1 ?

or If m and n are negative, is m,n less than 1 ? [/b]
Many of the great achievements of the world were accomplished by tired and discouraged men who kept on working.
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by mehravikas » Mon Jul 27, 2009 7:53 pm
What is the source of this q? answer should not be 'B'
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by umaa » Mon Jul 27, 2009 8:05 pm
Its from a book called GMAT Math Bible.
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by umaa » Mon Jul 27, 2009 8:10 pm
OA is E. I found the explanation. thx.
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by Rajani » Mon Jul 27, 2009 9:42 pm
stsmt one - it can be fractions .. say -1/2 and -1/4. still not sufficient
stmt 2 - chose m = -3 and n = -2 m-n = -1 > n (-2) m/n 3/2 >1
next chose m = -2 and n = -3; m-n = 1 (> n) and 2/3 < 1

togetehr they make no sense so ans = E
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by kaulnikhil » Tue Jul 28, 2009 1:36 pm
let m = -1/4 n=-1/3------if this then less than one
or m = -1/3 and n =-1/4--if this then greater than 1

both satisfy the 2 equations ..hence v cant reach a conclusion ..therefore E
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by gmat_2010 » Fri Jul 31, 2009 2:39 am
For the second statement:

m - n > n
Therefore, m > 2n
Therefore, m/n < 2 (sign changes because we know n is negative).
Hence, all we've got is -- m/n is less than 2. Hence, not B but E.
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by mehravikas » Fri Jul 31, 2009 4:58 pm
@gmat_2010:

If m/n is less than 2, then how it is sufficient that m/n will be less than 1????????????
gmat_2010 wrote:For the second statement:

m - n > n
Therefore, m > 2n
Therefore, m/n < 2 (sign changes because we know n is negative).
Hence, all we've got is -- m/n is less than 2. Hence, not B but E.
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by jsk988 » Sat Aug 01, 2009 12:04 am
Is it sufficient enough to simplify that the question is asking is m > n (i.e. m/n < 1)

so for the first condition, it simplifies to m > 1/n

the second condition simplifies to m > 2n

In either case, the conditions are inconclusive to state that m > n so it is E
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by mehravikas » Sat Aug 01, 2009 8:19 pm
yes that should be correct
jsk988 wrote:Is it sufficient enough to simplify that the question is asking is m > n (i.e. m/n < 1)

so for the first condition, it simplifies to m > 1/n

the second condition simplifies to m > 2n

In either case, the conditions are inconclusive to state that m > n so it is E
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