M7MBA wrote: ↑Wed Jun 24, 2020 6:04 am
If \((|p|!)^p=|p|!,\) which of the following could be the value(s) of \(p?\)
A. –1
B. 0
C. 1
D. –1 and 1
E. -1, 0, and 1
[spoiler]OA=E[/spoiler]
Source: GMAT Club Tests
Looking at the options, we see that we have to deal with three probable values of p. So, let's test these values from options.
(1) p = –1:
\((|-1|!)^{(-1)}=|-1|!\)
\((1!)^{(-1)}=1!\)
\(1=1\). This is the correct value of p.
(2) p = 0:
\((|0|!)^{(0)}=|0|!\)
\((1)^{(0)}=1\)
\(1=1\). This is the correct value of p.
The correct answer is E.
Though we got the answer, let's test p = 1, too.
(1) p = 1:
\((|1|!)^{(1)}=|1|!\)
\((1!)^{(1)}=1!\)
\(1=1\). This is the correct value of p.
Correct answer:
E
Hope this helps!
-Jay
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