If n is an integer greater than 50, then the expression (n^2

This topic has expert replies

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 768
Joined: Wed Dec 28, 2011 4:18 pm
Location: Berkeley, CA
Thanked: 387 times
Followed by:140 members
If n is an integer greater than 50, then the expression (n^2 - 2n)(n^2 - 1) MUST be divisible by which of the following?
I. 4
II. 6
III. 18
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I & II only
(D) II & III only
(E) I, II, and III


Mike :-)
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
https://gmat.magoosh.com/
Source: — Problem Solving |

Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 39
Joined: Sat Mar 15, 2014 10:36 pm
Thanked: 1 times

by raj44 » Sat May 24, 2014 11:08 pm
I'll go with C.

The given polynomial can be factorized into a product of 4 consecutive integers:

n (n-1)(n-2)(n+1). Now since N>50, plug in any value for N say 51. Therefore, the numbers are 51,50,49 and 52. The product of these numbers is for sure divisible by 4 and 6 , but 18.

This can be realized by using simpler set of 4 consecutive integers say 4,5,6,7 or 1,2,3,4.

I think the condition N>50, is just to make the problem look more complex that actually it is; the bottom line is- plug in numbers of questions of such types and then eliminate the options.

Thanks

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Sun May 25, 2014 2:20 am
Mike@Magoosh wrote:If n is an integer greater than 50, then the expression (n^2 - 2n)(n^2 - 1) MUST be divisible by which of the following?
I. 4
II. 6
III. 18
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I & II only
(D) II & III only
(E) I, II, and III
(n² - 2n)(n² - 1) = n(n-2)(n+1)(n-1) = (n-2)(n-1)(n)(n+1).
(n-2)(n-1)(n)(n+1) is the product of four consecutive integers.

Of every 4 consecutive integers, at least one will be a MULTIPLE OF 3 and exactly one will be a MULTIPLE OF 4.
Thus, the product of four consecutive integers must be a MULTIPLE OF 12.
Implication:
Statements I and II must be true.
Eliminate any answer choice that does not include both I and II (A, B and D).

If n=51, then (n-2)(n-1)(n)(n+1) = 49*50*51*52 = (7*7)(2*5*5)(3*17)(2*2*13).
The resulting product is not divisible by 18.
Eliminate any remaining answer choice that includes statement III (E).

The correct answer is C.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 16207
Joined: Mon Dec 08, 2008 6:26 pm
Location: Vancouver, BC
Thanked: 5254 times
Followed by:1268 members
GMAT Score:770

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sun May 25, 2014 3:48 am
I want to point out that Mitch is using an important property that can be summarized as follows:
The product of k consecutive integers is divisible by k, k-1, k-2,...,2, and 1
So, for example, the product of any 5 consecutive integers will be divisible by 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1
NOTE: the product may be divisible by other numbers as well, but these divisors are guaranteed.

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image