m = 9/25 = 9*32/(25*32) = 288/800
n = 16/32 = 15*25/(25*32) = 375/800
c = 1-m-n = 137/800
w>m>c
Answer (E)
I see that you got the answer as (E). Is the OA not (E)?
BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course
Redeem
Featured Course
Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand
Scott Woodbury-Stewart’s private virtual classroom — 400 hours of master-class video lessons for the GMAT Focus Edition.
- 715+ score guarantee — highest in the industry (99th percentile)
- 52 chapters · 1,500+ lessons · 4,000+ practice questions
- 400 hours of video · 1,500+ instructor-led HD smartboard lessons
- 300,000+ students accepted to Harvard, Stanford, Wharton, Booth & Sloan & more
- 24/7 live support + weekly Zoom office hours with GMAT instructors
- TTP AI Assist — 24/7 AI-powered virtual tutor for instant help
- 1,200+ flashcards + AI-powered study assistant & daily calendar
- OnDemand, LiveTeach & GMAT Bootcamp formats available
- Also: GRE, SAT Math & Executive Assessment courses
- MBA Admissions Consulting now available
- 🏆 2025 EdTech Breakthrough Award: Test Prep Solution Provider of the Year
- 200,000+ students served
- 5-day free trial — $0 to start, no auto-billing, cancel anytime
★★★★★
5.0
(559 reviews)
130-pt guarantee
$0 to start
then $127/mo
GMAT Prep
Source: Beat The GMAT — Problem Solving |
REALLY? I checked with a calculator to make sure and I get A as the answercks wrote:Offical Answer is D
9/25=.36 <-- m
15/32=.47 <-- w
1-(.36+.47)= .13 <-- c
The fastest way to solve this particular problem would be to convert it into percentages. Be careful in such problems if the ratio's are close to each other, then you would have to use the other approaches called out.
m=9/25=36/100 = 36%
w=15/32 (since 33.3 *3 ~100)= 45/96= ~46%
c= 100-46-36=18
hence w>m>c
m=9/25=36/100 = 36%
w=15/32 (since 33.3 *3 ~100)= 45/96= ~46%
c= 100-46-36=18
hence w>m>c
I find that the fastest way of approaching this is to consider all fractions in their relationship to one half.
ie,
15/32 is close to one halvf (16/32) and is therefore the greatest
9/25 is further away from one half (12.5/25), and
the remainder is bound to be small and can be double checked with the common denominator (137/800)
The OA is curious (?). I think it should be A. Maybe I could review my idea of what increasing order means. . .
ie,
15/32 is close to one halvf (16/32) and is therefore the greatest
9/25 is further away from one half (12.5/25), and
the remainder is bound to be small and can be double checked with the common denominator (137/800)
The OA is curious (?). I think it should be A. Maybe I could review my idea of what increasing order means. . .
m = 9/25 is approximately 10/25 = 2/5 = 0.4
w = 15/32 is approximately 16/32 = 1/2 = 0.5
So C = 1 - 0.9 = approx 0.1
So w>m>c.
For me approximation helps to solve such problems faster.
w = 15/32 is approximately 16/32 = 1/2 = 0.5
So C = 1 - 0.9 = approx 0.1
So w>m>c.
For me approximation helps to solve such problems faster.
-
Stuart@KaplanGMAT
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 3225
- Location: Toronto
- Thanked: 1710 times
- GMAT Score:800
"increasing order" means from smallest to biggest.
Damorris definitely gave the best approach to solving this question. Whenever you see really wacky/annoying numbers on the GMAT, there has to be a better way to solve it than actually doing the calculations. The fractions they give here are easy to estimate relative to 1/2.
c is smallest, m is middle, w is biggest, so in INCREASING order we get:
c, m, w
Damorris definitely gave the best approach to solving this question. Whenever you see really wacky/annoying numbers on the GMAT, there has to be a better way to solve it than actually doing the calculations. The fractions they give here are easy to estimate relative to 1/2.
c is smallest, m is middle, w is biggest, so in INCREASING order we get:
c, m, w
Stuart Kovinsky | Kaplan GMAT Faculty | Toronto
Kaplan Exclusive: The Official Test Day Experience | Ready to Take a Free Practice Test? | Kaplan/Beat the GMAT Member Discount
BTG100 for $100 off a full course
