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Gerund vs Infinitive form

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Gerund vs Infinitive form

by karmayogi » Thu Dec 25, 2008 10:02 am
Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.
A. Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
B. Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
C. Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes
D. To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes
E. To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
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by raunekk » Thu Dec 25, 2008 10:17 am
imo:D
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by ronniecoleman » Thu Dec 25, 2008 10:52 am
IMO A
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by amitabhprasad » Thu Dec 25, 2008 11:09 am
I believe "A" is wrong because of the usage of
the ... numbers of
I am between C and D. I will pick "C"
"To have" --> indicate intention and sentence doesn't show intention.
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by ronniecoleman » Thu Dec 25, 2008 11:30 am
amitabhprasad wrote:I believe "A" is wrong because of the usage of
the ... numbers of
I am between C and D. I will pick "C"
"To have" --> indicate intention and sentence doesn't show intention.
Correction!!

Thanks amitabh!
IMO C

i overlooked that factor ( numbers of is always wrong )
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by karmayogi » Thu Dec 25, 2008 7:00 pm
OA is C.

But Manhattan has given a different explanation for why D is wrong. Following is the explanation:

(D) This choice correctly replaces "numbers of" with "number of." However, the phrase beginning with the infinitive form "to have" is not parallel with the phrase "is termed polydactyly." To maintain parallel structure the phrase "is termed polydactyly" must be preceded by a noun phrase; the word "having" is a gerund, a verb that acts as a noun, and is therefore appropriate to open that phrase.

My Doubt: Why "is termed polydactyly" needs a gerund?And how they are parallel?
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by tanviet » Thu Dec 25, 2008 8:22 pm
this question is not official

I recommend that we study the offical quesions which come from good sourse or book

all 5 choices are wrong because gmat never agrees that "doing " or " to do " is in place of normal subject
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by karmayogi » Thu Dec 25, 2008 8:44 pm
duongthang wrote:this question is not official

I recommend that we study the offical quesions which come from good sourse or book

all 5 choices are wrong because gmat never agrees that "doing " or " to do " is in place of normal subject
The question is from Manhattan free practice test. As far as the source is concerned, Manhattan SC is considered in par with OG. All the options might be wrong, but in GMAT you don't have "none of these" option :). So select the best among the lot.
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by raunekk » Thu Dec 25, 2008 9:26 pm
whats the problem with D??
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by raunekk » Thu Dec 25, 2008 9:35 pm
i feel C has a problem of "dangling modifier"....


any views on this???
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by vittalgmat » Thu Dec 25, 2008 10:38 pm
raunekk wrote:i feel C has a problem of "dangling modifier"....


any views on this???
Raunekk.
I too feel the same .

"having... fingers or toes" <ignore "on ..feet"> is called polydactyly.
Here the opening clause "having .. toes" seems to modify "is".

can someone throw more light on this??
thanks
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by amitabhprasad » Thu Dec 25, 2008 10:54 pm
vittalgmat wrote:
raunekk wrote:i feel C has a problem of "dangling modifier"....


any views on this???
Raunekk.
I too feel the same .

"having... fingers or toes" <ignore "on ..feet"> is called polydactyly.
Here the opening clause "having .. toes" seems to modify "is".

can someone throw more light on this??
thanks
My take on this was, use of gerund vs infinitive; and infinitive is used to show intention while gerund shows the result or modifies main clause.
Guys I may be totally off, but thats the reason I selected "C" over "D"
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by raunekk » Thu Dec 25, 2008 11:37 pm
Raunekk.
I too feel the same .

"having... fingers or toes" <ignore "on ..feet"> is called polydactyly.
Here the opening clause "having .. toes" seems to modify "is".

But "to have" is also doing the same job of performing as a "noun" and it also seems to modify the verb "is"....

"having" which acts like a verb needs a definite noun here...

My take on this was, use of gerund vs infinitive; and infinitive is used to show intention while gerund shows the result or modifies main clause.




@amitabhprasad


how did you apply this in this particular sentence...?

thanks in advance..
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by anju » Fri Dec 26, 2008 4:48 am
Guys, I will go with D.

In one of the posts someone mentioned that gerund should always be preceeded by possessive and here's the link https://www.getitwriteonline.com/archive/022205.htm

So as per this C would have been correct if the stmt were Hand's or feet's having....

Any thoughts?
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by karmayogi » Fri Dec 26, 2008 6:04 am
anju wrote:Guys, I will go with D.

In one of the posts someone mentioned that gerund should always be preceeded by possessive and here's the link https://www.getitwriteonline.com/archive/022205.htm

So as per this C would have been correct if the stmt were Hand's or feet's having....

Any thoughts?
I also selected D but OA is C. And most weird part was its explanation: "However, the phrase beginning with the infinitive form "to have" is not parallel with the phrase "is termed polydactyly."
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