Well , I have gone thru the discussion.......

OA should be C.

Often gerund act as nouns...

The original sturcture intends to say :

x is termed Y

as Y is noun. X has to be noun....and gerund here serve that purpose.

To x is to y...............this is the correct and parallel sturcture.

Hence, To x is y.......where y is noun....is incorrect.........

Hope it clears the doubt

mastbombay wrote:Well , I have gone thru the discussion.......

OA should be C.

Often gerund act as nouns...

The original sturcture intends to say :

x is termed Y

as Y is noun. X has to be noun....and gerund here serve that purpose.

To x is to y...............this is the correct and parallel sturcture.

Hence, To x is y.......where y is noun....is incorrect.........

Hope it clears the doubt

'Having' is gerund and 'To have' is infinitive form. Both can serve the purpose of noun.

Issue is still open....

Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.

A. Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
B. Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
C. Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes
D. To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes
E. To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

Both "to have" or "having..." could act as noun. However, the former requires paralelism.

The grammar rule here is called subjective complement. When you have the verb to be you should look the subject and look for 100%noun with 100%noun, 100% gerund with 100%gerund.

In this case as we have a gerund that acts as a noun and there is no noun to replace the gerund, you can have 100% gerund and 100% noun. But you can never use 100% to infinitive with 100%noun because is not paralell.

El Cucu wrote: Both "to have" or "having..." could act as noun. However, the former requires paralelism.

The grammar rule here is called subjective complement. When you have the verb to be you should look the subject and look for 100%noun with 100%noun, 100% gerund with 100%gerund.

In this case as we have a gerund that acts as a noun and there is no noun to replace the gerund, you can have 100% gerund and 100% noun. But you can never use 100% to infinitive with 100%noun because is not paralell.

El your point is promising, but could you share the source of your premise?

Hi, the source of my premise is one hand writing note of a friend taken in a Gmat class.

karmayogi wrote:

El Cucu wrote: Both "to have" or "having..." could act as noun. However, the former requires paralelism.

The grammar rule here is called subjective complement. When you have the verb to be you should look the subject and look for 100%noun with 100%noun, 100% gerund with 100%gerund.

In this case as we have a gerund that acts as a noun and there is no noun to replace the gerund, you can have 100% gerund and 100% noun. But you can never use 100% to infinitive with 100%noun because is not paralell.

El your point is promising, but could you share the source of your premise?