Gmat Prep Inequality
This topic has expert replies
-
- Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
- Posts: 62
- Joined: Thu Jul 03, 2008 4:52 am
-
- Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
- Posts: 62
- Joined: Thu Jul 03, 2008 4:52 am
-
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 2467
- Joined: Thu Aug 28, 2008 6:14 pm
- Thanked: 331 times
- Followed by:11 members
Stmt I )
1/k-1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k-1)^2
k-1>0
k>1
So 1/k > 0 SUFF
Stmt II
1/k+1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k+1)^2
k+1>0
k>-1
We dont knoe if 1/k > 0( If k is -ve fraction then NO If k is positive fraction/integer then yes) INSUFF
A)
1/k-1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k-1)^2
k-1>0
k>1
So 1/k > 0 SUFF
Stmt II
1/k+1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k+1)^2
k+1>0
k>-1
We dont knoe if 1/k > 0( If k is -ve fraction then NO If k is positive fraction/integer then yes) INSUFF
A)
-
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 541
- Joined: Thu May 31, 2007 6:44 pm
- Location: UK
- Thanked: 21 times
- Followed by:3 members
- GMAT Score:680
imo A - but with substitution
statement 1 says: 1/(k-1)>0
as we know k cannot be 0,1 or -1
with statement 1 it is also true that k cannot be a negative number
for example k = -2
then,
1/(k-1)>0 becomes 1/(-2-1) or 1/(-3)>0 or -1/3>0 (which cannot happen)
so K always has to be positive and if k is positive then 1/(+ve k) is always greater than 0
NOW MOVING ON.....
Statement 2
1/(k+1)>0
if K is positive we are good as 1/(+ve K) will always be greater than 0.
but if K is -0.5
then 1/(-0.5+1)>0
or 1/0.5 > 0
or 2>0
statement 2 holds true but it makes 1/k = 1/(-0.5) = -2 which is less than 0
so statement 2 is insufficient
Remember: If the question does not mention the word integer, test for fractions as well.
statement 1 says: 1/(k-1)>0
as we know k cannot be 0,1 or -1
with statement 1 it is also true that k cannot be a negative number
for example k = -2
then,
1/(k-1)>0 becomes 1/(-2-1) or 1/(-3)>0 or -1/3>0 (which cannot happen)
so K always has to be positive and if k is positive then 1/(+ve k) is always greater than 0
NOW MOVING ON.....
Statement 2
1/(k+1)>0
if K is positive we are good as 1/(+ve K) will always be greater than 0.
but if K is -0.5
then 1/(-0.5+1)>0
or 1/0.5 > 0
or 2>0
statement 2 holds true but it makes 1/k = 1/(-0.5) = -2 which is less than 0
so statement 2 is insufficient
Remember: If the question does not mention the word integer, test for fractions as well.
-
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
- Posts: 347
- Joined: Mon Aug 04, 2008 1:42 pm
- Thanked: 1 times
Cramya,cramya wrote:Stmt I )
1/k-1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k-1)^2
k-1>0
k>1
A)
How can you multiply both sides of the inequality by (K-1)^2? Since you don't know whether K is positive or negative, you wouldn't know which way the inequality sign would flip. Right?
- logitech
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 2134
- Joined: Mon Oct 20, 2008 11:26 pm
- Thanked: 237 times
- Followed by:25 members
- GMAT Score:730
A square is always positive tough 8)Stockmoose16 wrote:Cramya,cramya wrote:Stmt I )
1/k-1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k-1)^2
k-1>0
k>1
A)
How can you multiply both sides of the inequality by (K-1)^2? Since you don't know whether K is positive or negative, you wouldn't know which way the inequality sign would flip. Right?
LGTCH
---------------------
"DON'T LET ANYONE STEAL YOUR DREAM!"
---------------------
"DON'T LET ANYONE STEAL YOUR DREAM!"
-
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
- Posts: 347
- Joined: Mon Aug 04, 2008 1:42 pm
- Thanked: 1 times
So you wouldn't be able to simply multiply by (k-1) then? Only (k-1)^2?logitech wrote:A square is always positive tough 8)Stockmoose16 wrote:Cramya,cramya wrote:Stmt I )
1/k-1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k-1)^2
k-1>0
k>1
A)
How can you multiply both sides of the inequality by (K-1)^2? Since you don't know whether K is positive or negative, you wouldn't know which way the inequality sign would flip. Right?
- logitech
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 2134
- Joined: Mon Oct 20, 2008 11:26 pm
- Thanked: 237 times
- Followed by:25 members
- GMAT Score:730
in this case you can use the SQUARE - because it is always + , but never multiply or divide an inequality with something without knowing its SIGNStockmoose16 wrote:So you wouldn't be able to simply multiply by (k-1) then? Only (k-1)^2?logitech wrote:A square is always positive tough 8)Stockmoose16 wrote:Cramya,cramya wrote:Stmt I )
1/k-1 > 0
Mutiply both sides of inequality by (k-1)^2
k-1>0
k>1
A)
How can you multiply both sides of the inequality by (K-1)^2? Since you don't know whether K is positive or negative, you wouldn't know which way the inequality sign would flip. Right?
LGTCH
---------------------
"DON'T LET ANYONE STEAL YOUR DREAM!"
---------------------
"DON'T LET ANYONE STEAL YOUR DREAM!"