- Srishti_15
- Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
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- Joined: Wed Jun 01, 2016 11:45 pm
Don't know how to approach this problem. Started off by assuming basic values for r1 and r2, but got stuck. Please help.
TIA.
TIA.
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A₂ and A₃ do not represent the areas of the two larger circles.Ovid wrote:Circle 1, Circle 2 and Circle 3 have the same center, and have a radius r1<r2<r3. --, let A2 be the area of the region within Circle 2 and outside Circle 1, and let A3 be the area of the region within Circle 3 and outside Circle 2."
I found your explanation helpful, GMATGuruNY.
However, wanted to ask about the condition provided in the question stem that states, "r1<r2<r3."
Given the definition of a circle is πr^2, and substituting the definition of a circle into the ratio of the three circle's areas, I inferred that:
= A1 : A2 : A3
and replacing area with the definition of a circle:
= π(radius 1)^2: π(radius 2)^2 : π(radius 3)^2
results in the inequality below, given what we know about the relative sizes of the radii.
= A1 < A2 < A3
However, my logic is not correct given A2 = A3 in Statement 1.
How can A2 = A3 when the radii cannot be equal?
Thanks
