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100 points for $49 worth of Veritas practice GMATs FREE VERITAS PRACTICE GMAT EXAMS Earn 10 Points Per Post Earn 10 Points Per Thanks Earn 10 Points Per Upvote ## Gmat prep 2 - Numbers properties ##### This topic has 1 expert reply and 5 member replies ## Gmat prep 2 - Numbers properties HI, Can someone help me with this ... If mv0? (1) m (2) m<0 tks, Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts Joined 11 Jul 2008 Posted: 58 messages Upvotes: 4 Test Date: 8/16/2008 Target GMAT Score: 730+ I think answer is B. Rephrase the question. What is the sign of m or p? Since mv and pv are negative, either mv must be +- or -+ and pv must be +- or -+ to make a negative product and adhere to the restrictions in the stem. 1) m 2) m<0 - Sufficient. Knowing that m is negative allows us to conclude that v is positive. GMAT Instructor Joined 01 May 2008 Posted: 189 messages Followed by: 1 members Upvotes: 25 Test Date: 2/18/2006 GMAT Score: 750+ In order for mv and pv to be less than 0, we have one of two cases: 1) v < 0 (and m>0, p>0) or 2) m<0 and p<0 (and v>0) The reason is that a negative number is the product of a positive number and a negative number. Statement 1 tells us that m Statement 2 tells us that m<0. So, we know we have "case 2", ie that v>0. So, statement 2 is sufficient and the answer is B. _________________ Tatiana Becker | GMAT Instructor | Veritas Prep Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts Joined 06 Jun 2007 Posted: 23 messages HI, The OA is D. Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts Joined 11 Jul 2008 Posted: 58 messages Upvotes: 4 Test Date: 8/16/2008 Target GMAT Score: 730+ Thanks for catching my mistake- I now see how 1) is sufficient. consider: for mv Ex: If m and p are positive then you can have 2*-1 < 3*-1 < 0 which violates the restriction that mp If m and p are negative then you can have -2*1 < -1*1 < 0 which satisfies all restrictions. Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts Joined 19 May 2008 Posted: 246 messages Upvotes: 7 Test Date: 06/30/2008 Target GMAT Score: 730 is it a right approach, someone please let me know. mv (m-p)v<0 stmt 1 says m 0 stmt 2 says m<0 given mv<0 hence v>0. ANS D. regards, _________________ Cubicle Bound Misfit ### GMAT/MBA Expert GMAT Instructor Joined 02 Jun 2008 Posted: 2424 messages Followed by: 349 members Upvotes: 1090 GMAT Score: 780 cubicle_bound_misfit wrote: mv (m-p)v<0 stmt 1 says m 0 stmt 2 says m<0 given mv<0 hence v>0. ANS D. regards, cubicle_bound_misfit wrote: is it a right approach, someone please let me know. Yes, excellent approach- nicely done. • Free Trial & Practice Exam BEAT THE GMAT EXCLUSIVE Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • 5 Day FREE Trial Study Smarter, Not Harder Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Award-winning private GMAT tutoring Register now and save up to$200

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