Given that a>1 and b>1. Is (a^x)(b^y)<1?

This topic has expert replies
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 3008
Joined: Mon Aug 22, 2016 6:19 am
Location: Grand Central / New York
Thanked: 470 times
Followed by:34 members

by Jay@ManhattanReview » Tue Oct 24, 2017 9:28 pm
LUANDATO wrote:Given that a>1 and b>1. Is (a^x)(b^y)<1?

(1) a^(x+y) < 1
(2) b^(x+y) < 1

The OA is E.

Can any expert help me with this DS question please? Thanks.
(1) a^(x+y) < 1

Case 1: Say a = 2, b= 3, x = 1, and y = -2. This ensures that a^(x+y) = 2^(1 - 2) = 2^(-1) = 1/2 < 1.

At these values, (a^x)(b^y) = (2^1)(3^(-2)) = 2*3^-2 = 2/9 < 1. The answer is yes.

Case 2: Say a = 10, b= 3, x = 1, and y = -2. This ensures that a^(x+y) = 10^(1 - 2) = 10^(-1) = 1/10 < 1.

At these values, (a^x)(b^y) = (10^1)(3^(-2)) = 10*3^-2 = 10/9 > 1. The answer is No.

(2) b^(x+y) < 1

Both the cases discussed above are applicable here too. Insufficient.

(1) & (2) b^(x+y) < 1

As stated that both the cases discussed above are applicable here too. Insufficient.

The correct answer: E

Hope this helps!

-Jay

Download free ebook: Manhattan Review GMAT Quantitative Question Bank Guide
_________________
Manhattan Review GMAT Prep

Locations: New York | Hyderabad | Mexico City | Toronto | and many more...

Schedule your free consultation with an experienced GMAT Prep Advisor! Click here.