Hi saranshpuri,

The specific meaning and intent of the verb-phrases "has staked" and "is staking" represent the primary differences in these 2 sentences.

In the first sentence, we're told that "Dynacorp...has staked its future...." This implies something that Dynacorp did in the past, but the sentence also references something that Dynacorp will be doing in the future (...bringing shale gas....to...India and China). It's odd to use a past-tense verb to refer to something that will not only happen in the future, but will also happen continuously in the future (since Dynacorp will probably be bringing shale gas to India and China more than once).

In the second sentence, we're told that "Dynacorp...is staking its future..." The verb "staking" is sometimes referred to as a "timeless verb", meaning that it implies an event that takes place at more than one point in time. This implies that Dynacorp is doing something right now (staking its future) and will probably continue to do that thing tomorrow (still staking its future) and continue to do that thing for some time to come. This is the correct meaning and intent of the sentence.

GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich