The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541-1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco's time, the intentional distortion of human figure was unprecedented in European painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is the characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be explained because ________
a) several twentieth-century artist have consciously adopted from El Greco's paintings the systematic elongation of the human form
b) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco's portraits.
c) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted.
d) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived.
e) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco's time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted.
Answer:
[/spoiler]C
El Greco CR ! can someone help me with this one ?
This topic has expert replies
-
- Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
- Posts: 9
- Joined: Tue Jul 19, 2011 3:46 am
- arashyazdiha
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
- Posts: 102
- Joined: Tue Mar 08, 2011 3:42 am
- Thanked: 2 times
Yes, I go with C.
If El Greco has astigmatism, and sees other people with distortion how his eyes are able to reflect the same distortion in the paintings?(because the stimulus says that the paintings are distorted and elongated body figures). let's say if he sees 0 as 1 then if he wants to write 1 he will write 0 be cause 0 seems 1 to him.(maybe it is an awful example but I hope it conveys what I mean).
If El Greco has astigmatism, and sees other people with distortion how his eyes are able to reflect the same distortion in the paintings?(because the stimulus says that the paintings are distorted and elongated body figures). let's say if he sees 0 as 1 then if he wants to write 1 he will write 0 be cause 0 seems 1 to him.(maybe it is an awful example but I hope it conveys what I mean).
-
- Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
- Posts: 9
- Joined: Tue Jul 19, 2011 3:46 am
Hey, thanks ! that sort of makes sense !arashyazdiha wrote:Yes, I go with C.
If El Greco has astigmatism, and sees other people with distortion how his eyes are able to reflect the same distortion in the paintings?(because the stimulus says that the paintings are distorted and elongated body figures). let's say if he sees 0 as 1 then if he wants to write 1 he will write 0 be cause 0 seems 1 to him.(maybe it is an awful example but I hope it conveys what I mean).