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Divisibility

Expert replies
by Winner2013 » Wed Oct 02, 2013 9:06 am
If 60! is written out as an integer, with how many consecutive 0’s will that integer end?
6
12
14
42
56

Please help. Correct answer is : 14

Wish to know a simple method if any.Thanks,pj
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Source: — Problem Solving |

by theCodeToGMAT » Wed Oct 02, 2013 9:15 am
The question asks power of 10..

For such questions.. divide the number by "5" and keep on dividing untill you cannot divide further

SO,

60/5 = 12
12/5 = 2
2/5 = 0

12+2 = 14

Answer [spoiler]{C} [/spoiler]
R A H U L
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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Wed Oct 02, 2013 9:18 am
Winner2013 wrote:If 60! is written out as an integer, with how many consecutive 0’s will that integer end?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 14
D) 42
E) 56
60! = (1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6) . . . (57)(58)(59)(60)
For every pair of one 2 and one 5, we get a product of 10, which accounts for one zero at the end of the integer.
So, the question is "How many pairs of one 2 and one 5 are "hiding" in the product?"

Well, there is no shortage of 2's hiding in the product. In fact, there are far more 2's than 5's. So, all we need to do is determine how many 5's are hiding in the product.
60! = (1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6) . . . (57)(58)(59)(60)
= (1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(2)(5)(11)...(3)(5)...(4)(5)...(5)(5)...(6)(5)...(7)(5)...(8)(5)...(9)(5)...(2)(5)(5)...(11)(5)...(56)(57)(58)(59)(12)(5)
In total, there are 14 5's hiding in the product.
And there are more than 14 2's hiding in the product.

So, there are 14 pairs of 2's and 5'2, which means the integer ends with 14 zeros

Answer: C

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Wed Oct 02, 2013 9:19 am
If you'd like additional practice, here's a similar question: https://www.beatthegmat.com/integers-t270158.html

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
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by Winner2013 » Wed Oct 02, 2013 9:46 am
Thank you Rahul and Brent :-)

Brent, yes i will solve this one too. thanks again
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by GMATGuruNY » Wed Oct 02, 2013 11:39 am
Winner2013 wrote:If 60! is written out as an integer, with how many consecutive 0’s will that integer end?
6
12
14
42
56
60! = 60*59*58*....*3*2*1.

Since 10=2*5, EVERY COMBINATION OF 2*5 contained within the prime-factorization of 60! will yield a 0 at the end of the integer representation of 60!.
The prime-factorization of 60! is composed of FAR MORE 2'S than 5's.
Thus, the number of 0's depends on the NUMBER OF 5's contained within 60!.

To count the number of 5's, simply divide increasing POWERS OF 5 into 60.

Every multiple of 5 within 60! provides at least one 5:
60/5 = 12 --> twelves 5's.
Every multiple of 5² provides a SECOND 5:
60/5² = 2 --> two more 5's.
Thus, the total number of 5's contained within 60! = 12+2 = 14.

The correct answer is C.

Another example:

If 200! is written out as an integer, with how many consecutive 0’s will that integer end?

Every multiple of 5 within 200! provides at least one 5:
200/5 = 40 --> forty 5's.
Every multiple of 5² provides a SECOND 5:
200/5² = 8 --> eight more 5's.
Every multiple of 5³ provides a THIRD 5:
200/5³ = 1 --> one more 5.
Thus, the total number of 5's contained within 200! = 40+8+1 = 49.
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