i have one question here..regarding choice A ( dont assume i am questioning it but want to know what i am missing )
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If used repeatedly in the same place, one reason that certain pesticides can become ineffective is suggested by the finding that there are much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a relatively long history of pesticide use than in soils that are free of such chemicals.
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is comparison is correct ?
there are much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a relatively long history of pesticide use than in soils that are free of such chemicals.
I think , it should be like
there are much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a relatively long history of pesticide use than those in soils that are free of such chemicals.
those - > much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes , does not we need it ?
can anyone explain ?
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If used repeatedly in the same place, one reason that certain pesticides can become ineffective is suggested by the finding that there are much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a relatively long history of pesticide use than in soils that are free of such chemicals.
---
is comparison is correct ?
there are much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a relatively long history of pesticide use than in soils that are free of such chemicals.
I think , it should be like
there are much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes in soils with a relatively long history of pesticide use than those in soils that are free of such chemicals.
those - > much larger populations of pesticide-degrading microbes , does not we need it ?
can anyone explain ?
