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Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of on

Expert replies
by varun289 » Sat Dec 15, 2012 11:16 am
Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of only 2 suits of 6 cards each. Each of the 6 cards within a suit has a different value from 1 to 6; thus, there are 2 cards in the deck that have the same value. Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles the deck, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value?
A. 8/33
B. 62/165
C. 17/33
D. 103/165
E. 25/33
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Source: — Problem Solving |

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sat Dec 15, 2012 11:22 am
varun289 wrote:Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of only 2 suits of 6 cards each. Each of the 6 cards within a suit has a different value from 1 to 6; thus, there are 2 cards in the deck that have the same value. Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles the deck, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value?
A. 8/33
B. 62/165
C. 17/33
D. 103/165
E. 25/33
Here's one approach using counting techniques.
First recognize that P(at least one pair) = 1-P(no pairs)

We'll find P(no pairs)

First, the number of possible outcomes.
We have 12 cards and we select 4.
This is accomplished in 12C4 ways = 495

Aside: If anyone is interested, we have a free video on calculating combinations (like 12C4) in your head: https://www.gmatprepnow.com/module/gmat-counting?id=789

Now we count the number of ways to select 4 different cards with no pairs. In other words, we want 4 different card values.
First look at how many different cards we can select (WITHOUT considering the suits)
There are 6 card values and we want to select 4.
This is accomplished in 6C4 = 15 ways.
For each of these 15 values (e.g., 1,2,4,5) each card can be of either suit.
So, for example, in how many ways can we have card values of 1,2,4,5?
For the 1-card we have 2 suits from which to choose.
For the 2-card we have 2 suits from which to choose.
For the 4-card we have 2 suits from which to choose.
For the 5-card we have 2 suits from which to choose.
So, for the selection 1,2,4,5 there are 2x2x2x2=16 possibilities.

So, the number of ways to select 4 cards such that there are no pairs is 15x16=240

So, the probability that there are no pairs = 240/495 = 16/33

So, P(at least one pair) = 1- 16/33 = 17/33 = C

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sat Dec 15, 2012 11:24 am
varun289 wrote:Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of only 2 suits of 6 cards each. Each of the 6 cards within a suit has a different value from 1 to 6; thus, there are 2 cards in the deck that have the same value. Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles the deck, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value?
A. 8/33
B. 62/165
C. 17/33
D. 103/165
E. 25/33
We can also solve this question using probability rules.

First, recognize that P(at least one pair) = 1 - P(no pairs)

P(no pairs) = P(select any 1st card AND select any non-matching card 2nd AND select any non-matching card 3rd AND select any non-matching card 4th)
= P(select any 1st card) x P(select any non-matching card 2nd) x P(select any non-matching card 3rd) x P(select any non-matching card 4th)
= 1 x 10/11 x 8/10 x 6/9
= 16/33

So, P(at least one pair) = 1 - 16/33
= 17/33
= C

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
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by Jeff@TargetTestPrep » Thu Dec 14, 2017 6:38 am
varun289 wrote:Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of only 2 suits of 6 cards each. Each of the 6 cards within a suit has a different value from 1 to 6; thus, there are 2 cards in the deck that have the same value. Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles the deck, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value?
A. 8/33
B. 62/165
C. 17/33
D. 103/165
E. 25/33

We can use the equation:

1 = P(at least one pair of cards in 4) + P(no pairs of cards in 4)

Let's determine the probability of not finding a pair of cards when 4 are flipped.

P(first flip) = 1

P(second flip is not a pair with the first card) = 10/11

P(third card is not a pair with the first or second card) = 8/10

P(fourth card is not a pair with the first, second, or third card) = 6/9

Thus, the probability of not selecting a pair is:

10/11 x 8/10 x 6/9

10/11 x 4/5 x 2/3

2/11 x 4 x 2/3

16/33

Since 1 = P(at least one pair of cards in 4) + P(no pairs of cards in 4),

P(at least one pair of cards in 4) = 1 - P(no pairs of cards in 4) = 1 - 16/33 = 17/33.

Answer: C

Jeffrey Miller
Head of GMAT Instruction
[email protected]

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