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MGMAT SC Discussion Continues on BTG - Thread gyrfalcon

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by mundasingh123 » Sun Jun 12, 2011 1:19 pm
https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/the ... 26-15.html
RonPurewal
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Post Posted: Wed Jul 30, 2008 4:50 am
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Posts: 5814
Anon wrote:
Hi Ron,

Could you please provide an example to clarify ... with adjectival and adverbial phrases...

X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
X has more money now than in 1988
X has more money than he had in 1988


are these all correct.... ???

thanks in advance -



i don't think the gmat would like any of these constructions all that much.

first two: the gmat would probably ding these for not changing the tensed verb. when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).

in other words: the second sentence expands as "x has more money now than he has in 1988". that's wrong.
the same type of thing applies to the first sentence - again, the second half needs a verb that's fixed in the past tense.

the third part seems fine, although there's something slightly undesirable about it (i can't put my finger on it exactly).
Hi Ron
I didnt really understand the following line
when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).
Why isnt the following sentence correct ?
I have more money now than i had in 1988 .
I didnt really understand why you applied "has " tense to both halves of the sentence
Similarly with
X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
Could You please explain ?
Regards
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by lunarpower » Thu Jun 16, 2011 2:39 am
mundasingh123 wrote:https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/the ... 26-15.html
RonPurewal
Post subject:
Post Posted: Wed Jul 30, 2008 4:50 am
Offline
ManhattanGMAT Staff



Posts: 5814
Anon wrote:
Hi Ron,

Could you please provide an example to clarify ... with adjectival and adverbial phrases...

X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
X has more money now than in 1988
X has more money than he had in 1988


are these all correct.... ???

thanks in advance -



i don't think the gmat would like any of these constructions all that much.

first two: the gmat would probably ding these for not changing the tensed verb. when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).

in other words: the second sentence expands as "x has more money now than he has in 1988". that's wrong.
the same type of thing applies to the first sentence - again, the second half needs a verb that's fixed in the past tense.

the third part seems fine, although there's something slightly undesirable about it (i can't put my finger on it exactly).
Hi Ron
I didnt really understand the following line
when you have a parallel structure, the common parts (here, "has ... money") are assumed to apply equally to both parts of the structure; applying that principle here leads to the conclusion that the present tense (has) is being applied to both halves of the parallel construction, including the second half (which is obviously a past event).
Why isnt the following sentence correct ?
I have more money now than i had in 1988 .
I didnt really understand why you applied "has " tense to both halves of the sentence
Similarly with
X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
Could You please explain ?
Regards
that's what the sentence *should* say -- but, if the sentence changes tenses, you must include verbs that actually change tenses.
if you don't, then the implication is that the tenses are the same.

e.g.
i can run as fast as my father --> this implies that i can run as fast as my father can run right now
if this is not the intended meaning -- i.e., if i mean to write that i can run as fast as my father could run at some past point -- then i *must* include both verbs: i can run as fast as my father could (at time X).
Ron has been teaching various standardized tests for 20 years.

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by mundasingh123 » Thu Jun 16, 2011 2:49 am
Since both the following sentences have explicit verbs in their second halves
  • I have more money now than i had in 1988 .

    X has more money now than when the stock market crashed
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