Hi,
Can somebody please clarify ?
Here is the question :
Physician: Heart disease generally affects men at an earlier age than it does women, who tend to experience hear disease after menopause. Both sexes have the hormones estrogen and testosterone, but when they are relatively young, men have ten times as much testosterone as women, and women abruptly lose estrogen after menopause. We can conclude, then, that testosterone tens to promote and estrogen tends to inhibit, heart disease.
The physician's argument is questionable because it persumes which one of the following without providing sufficient justification?
A) Hormones are the primary factors that account for the difference in age-related heart disease risks between women and men.
B) Estrogen and testosterone are the only hormones that promote or inhibit heart disease.
C) Men with high testosterone levels have a greate risk for heart diseases than do posmenopausal women.
D) Because hormone levels are correlated with heart disease they influence heart disease.
E) Hormone levels do not vary from person to person, especially among those of the same age and gender.
Please clarify my doubt :
The official answer is [spoiler](D)[/spoiler]...
Explanation : Only a correlation is suggested , but the conclusion states that a cause exists ... Ok Understood the explanation ...
MY DOUBT : [spoiler]The question stem discusses the hormones "testosterone and estrogen" ONLY, but the ans choice (D) discusses hormones in general . So is it Ok to generalize like this ? Which situations are we allowed to generalize in GMAT ? [/spoiler]
Pls clarify my doubt...
Thanks in advance
Can somebody please clarify ?
Here is the question :
Physician: Heart disease generally affects men at an earlier age than it does women, who tend to experience hear disease after menopause. Both sexes have the hormones estrogen and testosterone, but when they are relatively young, men have ten times as much testosterone as women, and women abruptly lose estrogen after menopause. We can conclude, then, that testosterone tens to promote and estrogen tends to inhibit, heart disease.
The physician's argument is questionable because it persumes which one of the following without providing sufficient justification?
A) Hormones are the primary factors that account for the difference in age-related heart disease risks between women and men.
B) Estrogen and testosterone are the only hormones that promote or inhibit heart disease.
C) Men with high testosterone levels have a greate risk for heart diseases than do posmenopausal women.
D) Because hormone levels are correlated with heart disease they influence heart disease.
E) Hormone levels do not vary from person to person, especially among those of the same age and gender.
Please clarify my doubt :
The official answer is [spoiler](D)[/spoiler]...
Explanation : Only a correlation is suggested , but the conclusion states that a cause exists ... Ok Understood the explanation ...
MY DOUBT : [spoiler]The question stem discusses the hormones "testosterone and estrogen" ONLY, but the ans choice (D) discusses hormones in general . So is it Ok to generalize like this ? Which situations are we allowed to generalize in GMAT ? [/spoiler]
Pls clarify my doubt...
Thanks in advance
