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I've seen people post a....
- Q39, V36 = 640
- Q34, V37 = 600
- Q36, V39 = 620

There just seems to be no consistency in raw score vs. total score. Apparently a Q39, V36 is NOT the same as the inverse score. This just seems odd. I got a Q35, V40 = 610 and am just trying to rationalize the raw score vs. total score.

My question: could more score (Q35, V40) result in a 600 or 620 depending no the questions I get wrong?

Thanks,
Blake

bbuisson wrote:I've seen people post a....
- Q39, V36 = 640
- Q34, V37 = 600
- Q36, V39 = 620

There just seems to be no consistency in raw score vs. total score. Apparently a Q39, V36 is NOT the same as the inverse score. This just seems odd. I got a Q35, V40 = 610 and am just trying to rationalize the raw score vs. total score.

My question: could more score (Q35, V40) result in a 600 or 620 depending no the questions I get wrong?

Thanks,
Blake

There is just no use trying to figure this out. The scoring depends on a complicated algorithm and trying to figure out how it assigns marks is going to be waste of time. You can get a rough idea about possible scores by looking at other peoples score and their breakup and your own mock prep scores and breakup.

Cheers

bbuisson wrote:I've seen people post a....
- Q39, V36 = 640
- Q34, V37 = 600
- Q36, V39 = 620

There just seems to be no consistency in raw score vs. total score. Apparently a Q39, V36 is NOT the same as the inverse score. This just seems odd. I got a Q35, V40 = 610 and am just trying to rationalize the raw score vs. total score.

My question: could more score (Q35, V40) result in a 600 or 620 depending no the questions I get wrong?

Thanks,
Blake

I was told at a Kaplan session that the GMAT weights Verbal scores more than Quant scores. Basically, because so many guys in India do so brilliantly at Quant, it skews the bell curve and therefore the bar is higher. However, it is more difficult for the general population to get the verbal part right.

Can anyone verify or debunk that claim?

Thanks,
Jon