BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

★★★★★5.0559 reviews
Vote for Target Test Prep, Newsweek Readers’ Choice Awards 2026
NEWSWEEK READERS’ CHOICE 2026

BIG NEWS! Target Test Prep has been nominated, and they’d love your vote!

TTP has worked incredibly hard to build the best test prep experience possible, and winning Newsweek’s 2026 Readers’ Choice Award for Best Test Prep would mean a lot to them. If TTP has helped you, they’d be incredibly grateful for your vote. You can vote once each day through September 9.

Vote for TTP
GMATLiveTeach 7 seats left
Chris Peckover
NEXT LIVE COHORT

Oct 13 to Jan 7, 2027

with Chris Peckover

Schedule
Tue, Thu · 8:00 to 10:00 PM ET
Included
40 live hours + 6 months of GMAT OnDemand
  • Live instruction and real-time questions
  • Class recordings and assigned practice
View class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeach 5 seats left
Logan Thompson
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Sep 6 to Dec 6, 2026

with Logan Thompson

Schedule
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes plus six months of access to the complete TTP EA OnDemand course.
  • 165+ EA Score Guarantee
  • 4,100+ Quant, Verbal, and Integrated Reasoning practice questions
  • 400+ hours of in-depth video lessons
  • 3,000+ step-by-step video solutions
View EA class & enroll
Limited cohort · enrollment openTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemand Start anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

715+ score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

Compare the format, schedule, and included access before enrolling. Prices and seat counts shown reflect the supplied offer details.

Help on quant problem

Expert replies
by lukemacdougall » Sat Apr 27, 2013 2:10 pm
Hey guys - would someone mind helping explain the solution for the below problem? Thanks in advance!

For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all the even integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h(100)+1, then p is...

a. between 2 and 10
b. between 10 and 20
c. between 20 and 30
d. between 30 and 40
e. greater than 40
Join the discussion
Source: — Problem Solving |

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sat Apr 27, 2013 2:44 pm
lukemacdougall wrote:Hey guys - would someone mind helping explain the solution for the below problem? Thanks in advance!

For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all the even integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h(100)+1, then p is...

a. between 2 and 10
b. between 10 and 20
c. between 20 and 30
d. between 30 and 40
e. greater than 40
Important Concept: If k is a positive integer that's greater than 1, and if k is a factor (divisor) of N, then k is not a divisor of N+1
For example, since 7 is a factor of 350, we know that 7 is not a factor of (350+1)
Similarly, since 8 is a factor of 312, we know that 8 is not a factor of 313

Now let's examine h(100)
h(100) = (2)(4)(6)(8)....(96)(98)(100)
Factor to get: h(100) = 2[(1)(2)(3)(4)....(48)(49)(50)]

Since 2 is in the product of h(100), we know that 2 is a factor of h(100), which means that 2 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

Similarly, since 3 is in the product of h(100), we know that 3 is a factor of h(100), which means that 3 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

Similarly, since 5 is in the product of h(100), we know that 5 is a factor of h(100), which means that 5 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

.
.
.
.
Similarly, since 47 is in the product of h(100), we know that 47 is a factor of h(100), which means that 47 is not a factor of h(100) +1 (based on the above rule)

So, we can see that none of the primes from 2 to 47 can be factors of h(100) +1, which means the smallest prime factor of h(100)+ 1 must be greater than 47.

Answer = E

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image
Join the discussion

by GMATGuruNY » Sun Apr 28, 2013 2:21 am
For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all even integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h(100) + 1, the p is

A: Between 2 & 10
B: Between 10 & 20
C: Between 20 & 30
D: Between 30 & 40
E: Greater than 40
Since the difference between them is 1, h(100) and h(100)+1 are consecutive integers.
Consecutive integers are COPRIMES: they share no factors other than 1.

Let's examine why:

If x is a multiple of 2, the next largest multiple of 2 is x+2.
If x is a multiple of 3, the next largest multiple of 3 is x+3.

Using this logic, if we go from x to x+1, we get only to the next largest multiple of 1.
So 1 is the only factor common both to x and to x+1.
In other words, x and x+1 are COPRIMES.

Thus:
h(100) and h(100)+1 are COPRIMES. They share no factors other than 1.

h(100) = 2 * 4 * 6 *....* 94 * 96 * 98 * 100
Factoring out 2, we get:
h(100) = 2^50 (1 * 2 * 3 *... * 47 * 48 * 49 * 50)

Looking at the set of parentheses on the right, we can see that every prime number between 1 and 50 is a factor of h(100).
Since h(100) and h(100)+1 are coprimes, NONE of the prime numbers between 1 and 50 can be a factor of h(100)+1.

Thus, the smallest prime factor of h(100) + 1 must be greater than 50.

The correct answer is E.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Join the discussion

by ygdrasil24 » Sun Apr 28, 2013 7:16 am
@Brent: Got your point. Can we not generalise it further to say.
For any K being divisor of N, K will not be divisor for N , N+1, N+2....N+(k-1).

Ex: say 105 is divisible by 5, so 106,107,108,019 will also be not divisible, so a period of (divisor-1). Pls confirm it.

Thanks :)
Join the discussion

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Sun Apr 28, 2013 7:36 am
ygdrasil24 wrote:@Brent: Got your point. Can we not generalise it further to say.
For any K being divisor of N, K will not be divisor for N , N+1, N+2....N+(k-1).

Ex: say 105 is divisible by 5, so 106,107,108,019 will also be not divisible, so a period of (divisor-1). Pls confirm it.

Thanks :)
That's a great (and true) generalization. Nice work.

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image
Join the discussion

by Matt@VeritasPrep » Sun Apr 28, 2013 7:17 pm
ygdrasil24 wrote:@Brent: Got your point. Can we not generalise it further to say.
For any K being divisor of N, K will not be divisor for N , N+1, N+2....N+(k-1).

Ex: say 105 is divisible by 5, so 106,107,108,019 will also be not divisible, so a period of (divisor-1). Pls confirm it.

Thanks :)
Hi Ygdrasil!

Trivial note: this isn't true for any divisor of N, only for divisors of N not equal to 1.

A safer and broader way of stating your (excellent!) assertion is that if K is a factor of N, then K is a factor of N + R if and only if K is also a factor of R.

One way you could write this: say N = K*m and R = K*p, where m and p are integers. Then N + R = K*m + K*p = K * (m+p), so (N + R) is divisible by K.

Now say R is NOT divisible by K, so R = K*q + z, where q is an integer and z is a nonzero integer less than K. Then (N + R) = K*m + K*q + z = K*(m+q) + z ... which isn't divisible by K, because you have a remainder, namely z.

(If all that felt like alphabet soup, ignore it and go with the more intuitive explanation above!)
Join the discussion