abhinav85 wrote:IMO D.

From 1st We get, if i understood it correctly that the range to the median, the range until the median. Being median the maximum value and 1st vale the minumum i.e $400,000. So that means the maximum value will be less then $800,000.Sufficient

From 2nd we get, SD is $200,000.that means every value is $200,000 apart.Sufficient.

abhinav85 wrote:
From the 1st statement we can conclude that the range until the mean is
<$400,000.
So that means Maximum value is $400,000 and mimimum say x.
the range will $400,000 - x= $400,000.

And the median is the value in the middle.
the maximum value of the whole set is <$800,000.
hence sufficient.

.

Ian Stewart wrote:

geet wrote:There are 100 employees in a company. Is the salary range greater than $1,000,000?
(1) The range to the median is less than $400,000.
(2) The standard deviation is $200,000


OA l8r ....do explain your logic!!!

This question doesn't make any sense. The 'range to the median' is meaningless; the range from what to the median? The least value in the set? The largest value in the set? There's no way to decide if this is sufficient, since there's no way to know what it means. At a guess, I'd suppose they're trying to say that no value is more than $400,000 from the median, in which case the range can't be greater than $800,000, but you'd never see this phrase in a real GMAT question.

Statement 2 is certainly insufficient, however; it's certainly possible to have a range greater than $1,000,000 and a standard deviation of $200,000, though the only way to prove that is using Chebyshev's inequality, which is certainly not tested on the GMAT. It's also easy to design a set with a range less than $1,000,000 and a standard deviation of $200,000. It's a very poorly designed question (and it's even worse if the OA is D, which is clearly wrong), and not one you need to study for the GMAT - where is it from?