Hi!
I just ran over this question in OG - QR: DS part question 120.:
Is 1/a-b < b-a ?
(1) a < b
(2) never mind
It's just about (1)
They say: From this, it is known that 1/a-b is negative and b-a is positive. Therefore, 1/a-b < b-a SUFFICIENT.
BUT:
it is not said that a and/or b is positive/negative, so let's assume:
a= -50
b=-100
=> 1/a-b = 1/(-50)-(-100) = 1/50
=> b-a = (-100) - (-50) = -50
So how is (1) sufficient? Thanks in advance!
I just ran over this question in OG - QR: DS part question 120.:
Is 1/a-b < b-a ?
(1) a < b
(2) never mind
It's just about (1)
They say: From this, it is known that 1/a-b is negative and b-a is positive. Therefore, 1/a-b < b-a SUFFICIENT.
BUT:
it is not said that a and/or b is positive/negative, so let's assume:
a= -50
b=-100
=> 1/a-b = 1/(-50)-(-100) = 1/50
=> b-a = (-100) - (-50) = -50
So how is (1) sufficient? Thanks in advance!













