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modesto2
- Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
- Posts: 25
- Joined: Wed Mar 18, 2009 10:12 am
- Location: California
- GMAT Score:750
I'd like some expert advice and analysis about some interesting test scores.
3 months ago:
I took the GMATPrep 1 practice test and scored 690 (Q39 V41) WITHOUT doing the two AWA essays.
Today:
I took the GMATPrep 1 practice test again, recognized maybe 3 or 4 of the old questions, but the overwhelming majority were new - and competed the two AWA essays. Still scored 690 (Q44 V40).
So after three months of studying (Kaplan Premier and OG12), I still get the same score on the GMATPrep. What happened? The two variables I can think of are:
1. I DID recognize a few questions
2. However, I failed to do the two AWA essays on the first attempt three months ago and may have been "fresher" than I should have been in attempting the Q and V sections back then.
So do these variables cancel each other out? Thoughts? Thanks.
3 months ago:
I took the GMATPrep 1 practice test and scored 690 (Q39 V41) WITHOUT doing the two AWA essays.
Today:
I took the GMATPrep 1 practice test again, recognized maybe 3 or 4 of the old questions, but the overwhelming majority were new - and competed the two AWA essays. Still scored 690 (Q44 V40).
So after three months of studying (Kaplan Premier and OG12), I still get the same score on the GMATPrep. What happened? The two variables I can think of are:
1. I DID recognize a few questions
2. However, I failed to do the two AWA essays on the first attempt three months ago and may have been "fresher" than I should have been in attempting the Q and V sections back then.
So do these variables cancel each other out? Thoughts? Thanks.












