If \(x, y\) and \(z\) are positive integers, is \(x\%\) of \(y\) bigger than \(y\%\) of \(Z?\)

[VJesus12]

If \(x, y\) and \(z\) are positive integers, is \(x\%\) of \(y\) bigger than \(y\%\) of \(Z?\)

(1) \(x= z\)
(2) \(z –y = y - x\)

[spoiler]OA=A[/spoiler]

Source: GMAT Club Tests