Use of "have been"

[Indradeep]

Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, have been led to move from passive involvement in commercial real estate partnerships to active development of their own increasingly ambitious projects.

(A) Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, have been led
(B) Foreign investors, growing confident about their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, has led them
(C) Growing confidence in their ability to make profitable investments in the United States has led foreign investors
(D) Growing confidence in their ability for making profitable investments in the United States have led foreign investors
(E) Growing confident about their capabilities for making profitable investments in the United States, foreign investors have been led

In an earlier post, I see that A and E are out because "have been" is used.
Can some one explain please?

[Darshan.D]

Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, have been led to move from passive involvement in commercial real estate partnerships to active development of their own increasingly ambitious projects.

(A) Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, have been led
(B) Foreign investors, growing confident about their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, has led them
(C) Growing confidence in their ability to make profitable investments in the United States has led foreign investors
(D) Growing confidence in their ability for making profitable investments in the United States have led foreign investors
(E) Growing confident about their capabilities for making profitable investments in the United States, foreign investors have been led

Whats the correct answer? I think its "C"

Have been is wrong because confidence cannot actually lead & move investors or maybe i cant explain properly

[codesnooker]

Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, have been led to move from passive involvement in commercial real estate partnerships to active development of their own increasingly ambitious projects.

(A) Foreign investors, because of their growing confidence in their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, have been led
(B) Foreign investors, growing confident about their capability for making profitable investments in the United States, has led them
(C) Growing confidence in their ability to make profitable investments in the United States has led foreign investors
(D) Growing confidence in their ability for making profitable investments in the United States have led foreign investors
(E) Growing confident about their capabilities for making profitable investments in the United States, foreign investors have been led

In an earlier post, I see that A and E are out because "have been" is used.
Can some one explain please?

IMO (C).

Option (A) and (E) are out because of usage of have been in the sentence. Why? Because been is used where either some reference of time is present or sentence shows some action that started somewhere in present only and still on going.

But in the given question, the sentence does not talks about any on going action or time frame. Therefore, here usage of BEEN is wrong.

(B) is out because of awkward construction. GMAT prefers simple constructions.

For example,

1. Rahul, to pull the rope, calls Sunita. (Awkward construction).
2. Rahul calls Sunita for pulling the rope. (Simple construction).
OR
3. To pull the rope, Rahul calls Sunita. (Simple modifier type construction).

(D) is out because of usage of SVA error. Growing confidence is SINGULAR hence usage of HAVE is INCORRECT over here.

Choose (C).

Hope this helps...

[Indradeep]

Hmmmm. I see
But what is confusing is that "Foreign investors have been led to move away" looks pretty ok.
Not always is reference of time necessary, e.g. "The team has been led by the captain vcery well".
is correct, isnt it?
Maybe we could discuss bit more on this.


C is the right answer.

[codesnooker]

But what is confusing is that "Foreign investors have been led to move away" looks pretty ok.
Not always is reference of time necessary, e.g. "The team has been led by the captain vcery well".
is correct, isnt it?
Maybe we could discuss bit more on this.

Well, first example is incorrect and second one is correct but it is in passive form which is least preferable on GMAT. Therefore, choose the option first which in active voice but with no grammar mistake.

Usage of Has/Have Been


1. Time Factor

If we introduce time factor in both examples then sentence will be correct.

So better options are:-

1. Foreign investors have led to move away.
2. John has been led the team very well, since he become the captain. (Here SINCE introduces the time factor).
OR
The Captain has led the team very well.

2. Passive Voice

Here is the rule for passive voice: has/have been + past participle = present perfect passive voice.

So your 2nd example will be correct (as it is in passive form) but use passive form only when you don't have any correct active voice option.

Hope it clears your has/have been doubt.