OG CR 93 Trade Retaliation Question

[EMAN]

Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country's markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.

(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation

(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade

(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal

(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other

(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers



Please let me know what you think. After reviewing the problem and the OG answer, I can see the connection but the logic is quite clear to me.

[raghavakumar85]

IMO D.

Two countries (be X and Y) mentioned in the question have closed their markets so that the other country would reopen the markets. When a third country Z wants to do business with X or Y observes that the markets are closed. Hence, it too feels the same to shutdown its markets so that X or Y would re-open their markets. Hence, it implies for every two countries considered, there are only closed markets. Hence D.

[EMAN]

Good logic

[james33]

D is the most suitable option in this case.