Is the rightness of an action determined by its consequences, or by the intentions of the
agent behind the action? Deontological ethics, in contrast to teleological or utilitarian
ethics, asserts the latter. For example, Immanuel Kant argued that the only absolutely
good thing is a good will, and thus that the only means of determining the rightness
of an action is the motive of the person performing that action. Thus, if a person is acting
on a bad maxim ("Stealing is good"), then the action is wrong, even if it produces
some good consequences (e.g., stealing from the rich and giving to the poor). However,
not all deontologists are absolutists: W.D. Ross, for instance, holds that lying is sometimes
the right thing to do if the results of the action are likely to be beneficial.
A criticism levied by Jeremy Bentham, a utilitarian philosopher, is that deontological
ethics were merely a dressed-up version of popular morality, wherein the ostensible
"universal laws" were actually merely subjective opinion. A separate critique of deontology
comes from aretaic theories, which hold that it is not the good will of the agent
nor the consequences of the action that determine the moral rightness of that action-
rather it is the character of the person performing the action. This is by no means a
new idea: the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle is considered the founder of virtue
ethics, which seeks to describe the traits of an ideally virtuous person, and then posit
that we should act in accordance with those traits.
q# 3) According to the passage, virtue ethics:
(A) suggests that individuals should behave like a person whose character
matches an ideal
(B) purports that those acting on a bad maxim can still be morally correct
(C) has been more influential in society than deontological ethics
(D) is more widespread in modern-day Greece than elsewhere
(E) contrasts with teleological ethics in its view of the human will
Correct ans is A
I want to understand the explanation given for the ans choice E
The book says E is incorrect because,
[spoiler](E) INCORRECT. You only know similarities between virtue ethics and teleological theories;
you weren't told of any differences.[/spoiler]
As per my understanding, passage doesn't mention any similarities between virtue ethics and teleological theories.
In the below section of the passage , it seems clear that Virtue Ethics doesn't support either Deontological Ethics or Teleological Ethics:
"A separate critique of deontology comes from aretaic theories, which hold that it is not the good will of the agent nor the consequences of the action that determine the moral rightness of that action-rather it is the character of the person performing the action. This is by no means a
new idea: the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle is considered the founder of virtue
ethics, which seeks to describe the traits of an ideally virtuous person, and then posit
that we should act in accordance with those traits."
Please explain if you get my question.
agent behind the action? Deontological ethics, in contrast to teleological or utilitarian
ethics, asserts the latter. For example, Immanuel Kant argued that the only absolutely
good thing is a good will, and thus that the only means of determining the rightness
of an action is the motive of the person performing that action. Thus, if a person is acting
on a bad maxim ("Stealing is good"), then the action is wrong, even if it produces
some good consequences (e.g., stealing from the rich and giving to the poor). However,
not all deontologists are absolutists: W.D. Ross, for instance, holds that lying is sometimes
the right thing to do if the results of the action are likely to be beneficial.
A criticism levied by Jeremy Bentham, a utilitarian philosopher, is that deontological
ethics were merely a dressed-up version of popular morality, wherein the ostensible
"universal laws" were actually merely subjective opinion. A separate critique of deontology
comes from aretaic theories, which hold that it is not the good will of the agent
nor the consequences of the action that determine the moral rightness of that action-
rather it is the character of the person performing the action. This is by no means a
new idea: the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle is considered the founder of virtue
ethics, which seeks to describe the traits of an ideally virtuous person, and then posit
that we should act in accordance with those traits.
q# 3) According to the passage, virtue ethics:
(A) suggests that individuals should behave like a person whose character
matches an ideal
(B) purports that those acting on a bad maxim can still be morally correct
(C) has been more influential in society than deontological ethics
(D) is more widespread in modern-day Greece than elsewhere
(E) contrasts with teleological ethics in its view of the human will
Correct ans is A
I want to understand the explanation given for the ans choice E
The book says E is incorrect because,
[spoiler](E) INCORRECT. You only know similarities between virtue ethics and teleological theories;
you weren't told of any differences.[/spoiler]
As per my understanding, passage doesn't mention any similarities between virtue ethics and teleological theories.
In the below section of the passage , it seems clear that Virtue Ethics doesn't support either Deontological Ethics or Teleological Ethics:
"A separate critique of deontology comes from aretaic theories, which hold that it is not the good will of the agent nor the consequences of the action that determine the moral rightness of that action-rather it is the character of the person performing the action. This is by no means a
new idea: the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle is considered the founder of virtue
ethics, which seeks to describe the traits of an ideally virtuous person, and then posit
that we should act in accordance with those traits."
Please explain if you get my question.
