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wilderness
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
- Posts: 102
- Joined: Sat Mar 15, 2008 4:03 am
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Hi,
In regards to the question below I have problem with the statement earlier time.
A motorist drives from Miami to Dallas, a distance of approximately 1300 miles, at an average rate of 65 miles per hour. If the motorist arrives in Dallas at 11:30 in the evening, and if the time in Dallas is one hour earlier than the time in Miami, at what time did the motorist leave Miami?
2:30 a.m.
3:30 a.m.
4:30 a.m.
5:30 a.m.
6:30 a.m.
The calculation is simple. The journey took 20 hrs, so it was 03:30 in Dallas when he started the journey. Now the important question :
What was the time is Miami when it was 0330 in Dallas
The question says Dallas is 1 hour earlier. This means the time in Miami was 02:30 when he left.
But the OA say 04:30 and gives the following explanation.
". Rate problem: Rate x Time = Distance. If you count backwards 20 hours from 11:30, you'll get 3:30am. This is Dallas time, though. Because Miami is one hour later, we must add one hour, and we get 4:30am. "
Normally when I say time in London is 5 hours earlier than Washington than its 05:00 in Washington when its 10:00 in London. A city with earlier time is supposed to be in the east and hence have a time forward.
But here the explanation is mistaken.
What do you think ?
In regards to the question below I have problem with the statement earlier time.
A motorist drives from Miami to Dallas, a distance of approximately 1300 miles, at an average rate of 65 miles per hour. If the motorist arrives in Dallas at 11:30 in the evening, and if the time in Dallas is one hour earlier than the time in Miami, at what time did the motorist leave Miami?
2:30 a.m.
3:30 a.m.
4:30 a.m.
5:30 a.m.
6:30 a.m.
The calculation is simple. The journey took 20 hrs, so it was 03:30 in Dallas when he started the journey. Now the important question :
What was the time is Miami when it was 0330 in Dallas
The question says Dallas is 1 hour earlier. This means the time in Miami was 02:30 when he left.
But the OA say 04:30 and gives the following explanation.
". Rate problem: Rate x Time = Distance. If you count backwards 20 hours from 11:30, you'll get 3:30am. This is Dallas time, though. Because Miami is one hour later, we must add one hour, and we get 4:30am. "
Normally when I say time in London is 5 hours earlier than Washington than its 05:00 in Washington when its 10:00 in London. A city with earlier time is supposed to be in the east and hence have a time forward.
But here the explanation is mistaken.
What do you think ?
