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metallicafan
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
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- Joined: Sun Jun 12, 2011 7:55 am
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Hi,
I would like to know in which cases we can say that because a^x > a^y, then x>y.
If a is a fraction is between 0 and 1, we cannot claim that, right?
Thank you!
I would like to know in which cases we can say that because a^x > a^y, then x>y.
If a is a fraction is between 0 and 1, we cannot claim that, right?
Thank you!












