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by bia » Fri May 16, 2008 7:46 am
The triangle area will be greatest if the base equals to diameter. The height will become very small. So the area = (1/2)(base x height) ~ (1/2) x base = (1/2) x 2 = 1
Bia
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by dferm » Fri May 16, 2008 9:15 am
Still don't understand...

Please Help..

Thanks...

Can someone put a little more light to this question..
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by aatech » Fri May 16, 2008 9:38 am
This can be proven but for GMAT purpose just remember that an isosceles triangle has max area when angles are 90-45-45.. In this case area of this triangle is

0.5*1*1 = 0.5 = 1/2

Ans B

PS: I am sure this answer would not convince you but this rule can help
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by dferm » Fri May 16, 2008 9:46 am
How did you get so good on these questions.?

I have the test tomorrow can you help or tell me how to practice...
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by AleksandrM » Fri May 16, 2008 9:51 am
As was stated above, the area is greates when the base = 2, or the diameter of the circle.

If you split this large triangle into two right triangles, you end with two triangles with base and hight 1 and hypotenus of sqroot2.

Therefore, the larger triangle has hypotenus (diameter) 2 and base and height sqroot 2.

Area = sqroot2 x sqroot2/2 = 2/2 = 1.
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by aatech » Fri May 16, 2008 9:56 am
dferm wrote:How did you get so good on these questions.?

I have the test tomorrow can you help or tell me how to practice...
You have the test tomorrow.. so only advise I can give is to relax and don't stress yourself...

GOOD LUCK..
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by dferm » Fri May 16, 2008 10:07 am
Can you draw this out for me...

I kind of see it but will definitely see it with a pic..
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by dferm » Fri May 16, 2008 10:44 am
GOT IT....
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