paper set GMATprep

[lalabee]

i dont understand why thhe answer is C, can Stuart kindly help?

is it unidiomatic to put "such animosity" in the later sentence or after "between .... and ....., such animosity" ? i thought the first sentence are actually modifier for "such animosity"

and why do we have to use "has never been"


Thanks in advance.

[simplyjat]

This question is specifically asking for "missing verb".

Every sentence must contain at least one complete independent clause. If there is no independent clause at all, or if what’s supposed to be the independent clause is incomplete, you’ve got a sentence fragment.

[Stuart@KaplanGMAT]

i dont understand why thhe answer is C, can Stuart kindly help?

is it unidiomatic to put "such animosity" in the later sentence or after "between .... and ....., such animosity" ? i thought the first sentence are actually modifier for "such animosity"

and why do we have to use "has never been"


Thanks in advance.

(a) and (b) are right out because they're completely missing the verb.

We always need to stick to the meaning of the original sentence. "Has never been" implies that it STILL has never been as bad - "was never" means that, at the time, it was never as bad, but things may have become worse since then. "Has never been" is what's implied by the original sentence, so that's the tense we need to use.

The second "between" changes the meaning of (e).