DS.... GMATPrep Prac Test 2

[bharatishiv]

If mv<pv<0, is v>0?

St1: m<p
St2: m<0

[sanp_l]

Hi,

Option 1 is sufficient to answer the question.

pv< 0. hence, either p <0 or v < 0.

It is given that p > m.
So pv > mv can only be true when v has a +ve sign. If v is -ve, then p < m.

hence, because p > m is given and that pv >mv, v > 0.

From this it follows that p < 0 which is stated in Option 2, which isn't required. It can be deduced.

[Patrick_GMATFix]

If mv<pv<0, is v>0?

St1: m<p
St2: m<0

Hello Bharatishiv,

We know that mv<pv from the start. Since statement 1 tells us that m<p, it means that dividing both sides of mv<pv by v did not flip the direction of the inequality, so v must be positive. That answers the question.

We know from the start that mv<0, which means m and v have opposite signs. Since Statement 2 tells us that m is negative, it must be the case that v is positive. That answers the question.

The answer is D

A more detailed solution as well as a step-by-step video solution is available at GMATPrep Question 1241. To practice similar questions in timed drills, set topic='Number Properties' and difficulty='600-700' in the Drill Generator.

Good luck
-Patrick