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mba_aspirant911
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On page 108, 4th edition of MGMAT's SC guide, the following sentences are listed:
1) The child DREW a square in the sand, but the ocean ERASED it
2) The child DREW a square in the sand, but the ocean HAS ERASED it.
Sentence 1) describes the act of erasing in the Simple Past tense, and Sentence 2) describes it with a Present Perfect tense.
It is also stated that in the first sentence (Simple Past), the state of the sand is not known but that in the second sentence (Present Perfect), it is known.
This is a little confusing to me. I know that Present Perfect can be used to describe a continued action (e.g. He has been sick since Tuesday) or a completed action whose effects still exist now (e.g. The artist has drawn a picture).
Why doesn't 1) clearly describe the actions of the ocean erasing the square in the sand, through the words, "erased it"? From this, can't we infer that the square was indeed drawn but the ocean came along and erased it, and therefore, it no longer exists?
1) The child DREW a square in the sand, but the ocean ERASED it
2) The child DREW a square in the sand, but the ocean HAS ERASED it.
Sentence 1) describes the act of erasing in the Simple Past tense, and Sentence 2) describes it with a Present Perfect tense.
It is also stated that in the first sentence (Simple Past), the state of the sand is not known but that in the second sentence (Present Perfect), it is known.
This is a little confusing to me. I know that Present Perfect can be used to describe a continued action (e.g. He has been sick since Tuesday) or a completed action whose effects still exist now (e.g. The artist has drawn a picture).
Why doesn't 1) clearly describe the actions of the ocean erasing the square in the sand, through the words, "erased it"? From this, can't we infer that the square was indeed drawn but the ocean came along and erased it, and therefore, it no longer exists?












