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Source: — Data Sufficiency |
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by jeffedwards » Wed May 12, 2010 12:12 pm
The answer is C

1 - after simplifying you only know that n = k^3-k
2 - says nothing about n
Together - if you know that k-1 is a multiple of three you have from the first statement
(M of 3 +1)(M of 3 +2)(M of 3)
M of 3 stands for a multiple of three
In other words you have at least one even number times a multiple of 3 ...this will give you a multiple of six
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by dkumar.83 » Thu May 13, 2010 3:57 am
Hi Jeff,

The current answer is A.

Statement 1. As per this n is product of 3 consecutive numbers. If you take any 3 consecutive nos. their product is always divisible by 6. Only confusion is if k=1, then the n becomes 0. Maybe, as per answer 0 is considered to be divisible by any no.

Have a thought.
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by jeffedwards » Thu May 13, 2010 7:59 am
Haha, you're totally right. Thanks :)

Yeah, 0 divided by any number is 0...and zero is an integer. ..no remainder.

Nice one.
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