Veritas Prep Q - level 88

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Veritas Prep Q - level 88

by hemant_rajput » Mon Jul 08, 2013 6:04 am
As they get older, women usually maintain their ability to hear higher frequencies longer than men do. This is only because men are usually exposed to more dangerously loud noises at work and during recreation. In societies that do not have hazardous noises, there is no difference in hearing loss between men and women. Nor is there a difference in hearing loss between males and female animals whose hearing has been studied.

Which of the following choices MUST be true based on the information above?

a. When women and men are exposed to the same level of hazardous noises while working, men experience greater loss of hearing.

b. The difference between men and women in their ability to hear higher frequencies is entirely unrelated to any difference in the structure of the inner ear.

c. If male animals were exposed to the same loud noises to which many men are exposed, the animals would experience greater loss of hearing than would female animals.

d. In general, women and men do not differ in their ability to hear lower frequencies.

e. Women who live in societies that do not have hazardous noises experience less loss of hearing than do women who live in societies that do have hazardous noises.


[spoiler]OA:B[/spoiler]

I doubt the authenticity of OA.

IMO, the difference in the ability of Men and Women to maintain the hearing of high freq is due to exposure of noisy ambiance. But the correct answer relates the ability to hear high frequency with the ability to maintain hearing of high frequency.

Can someone please elucidate this paradox?
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by dumbest » Mon Jul 08, 2013 6:43 am
As per the text, the only reason for difference in hearing ability is men being usually exposed to loud noises.

Choices A,C,D,E may be true based on logical deduction but there is no certainity/evidence.

Whereas, if B were not true, it would weaken the argument.So, B must be true.
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