I'm sure there are a number of causes for the lower percentile with fewer questions missed (frequency, order, etc), but I'm a little confused by the large difference in the percentiles.
GMAT Test 1: 39 Verbal (88th Percentile)
10 missed, (numbers: 3,5,6,8,12,24,28,29,34,38)
GMAT Test 2: 36 Verbal (79th Percentile)
8 missed, (numbers: 1,3,8,11,16,18,20,30)
Does anybody have any insight as to why the second test percentile is so much lower? I know it depends on the specific question missed and its level of difficultly, but I had a pretty long run in the second half of the second test with only 1 missed... 21-41. I'm confused and a little discouraged. My recent Kaplan CATS have been 88th percentile.
Thanks in advance.
GMAT Test 1: 39 Verbal (88th Percentile)
10 missed, (numbers: 3,5,6,8,12,24,28,29,34,38)
GMAT Test 2: 36 Verbal (79th Percentile)
8 missed, (numbers: 1,3,8,11,16,18,20,30)
Does anybody have any insight as to why the second test percentile is so much lower? I know it depends on the specific question missed and its level of difficultly, but I had a pretty long run in the second half of the second test with only 1 missed... 21-41. I'm confused and a little discouraged. My recent Kaplan CATS have been 88th percentile.
Thanks in advance.













